ATI PN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2026 – Forms
A, B & C + Bonus Practice Questions | Verified
Answers & Latest Prep Pack
ATI PN COMPREHENSIVE EXIT EXAM 2026
Practice Questions | Verified Answers
Question 1 A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin.
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
B. Heart rate of 54 beats/min
C. Blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg
D. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min
E. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Heart rate of 54 beats/min
RATIONALE: Digoxin slows the heart rate as part of its mechanism of action, but a
heart rate below 60 beats/min (bradycardia) is a sign of digoxin toxicity. The nurse
should withhold digoxin and notify the provider if the apical pulse is below 60 beats/min
in adults before administration or if bradycardia develops during therapy. Urine output,
blood pressure, respiratory rate, and potassium at these values are all within acceptable
ranges.
Question 2 A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes mellitus and reports feeling
shaky and sweaty. The client's blood glucose is 58 mg/dL. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take first?
A. Administer 1 mg glucagon intramuscularly
B. Notify the provider immediately
C. Give the client 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate
D. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position
E. Obtain a repeat blood glucose in 30 minutes
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Give the client 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate
,RATIONALE: The client is conscious and showing signs of hypoglycemia (blood
glucose 58 mg/dL, shakiness, diaphoresis). The priority action per the 15-15 rule is to
administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate (e.g., 4 oz orange juice, glucose
tablets). Glucagon is reserved for unconscious clients who cannot swallow. Notifying the
provider and rechecking glucose are subsequent actions after initial treatment.
Question 3 A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new
prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates
understanding?
A. "I will take aspirin if I have mild pain."
B. "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush."
C. "I can stop taking warfarin when I feel better."
D. "I should eat more leafy green vegetables while on this medication."
E. "I do not need to have my blood checked regularly."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush."
RATIONALE: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases bleeding risk. Using a soft-
bristled toothbrush reduces the risk of gum bleeding. Aspirin and NSAIDs should be
avoided as they potentiate anticoagulant effects and increase bleeding risk. Warfarin
must be taken as prescribed even when feeling well; stopping abruptly can cause clot
formation. Consistent intake of Vitamin K (leafy greens) is recommended — not
increased intake, as Vitamin K antagonizes warfarin. Regular INR monitoring is
essential.
Question 4 A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a hip
replacement. The client reports sudden onset of chest pain and dyspnea. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Administer prescribed analgesics
B. Elevate the head of the bed
C. Notify the surgeon immediately
D. Obtain an ECG
E. Assess oxygen saturation and administer oxygen
, CORRECT ANSWER: E. Assess oxygen saturation and administer oxygen
RATIONALE: Sudden chest pain and dyspnea in a postoperative orthopedic client are
classic signs of pulmonary embolism (PE). The priority action using the ABCs
framework is to address airway and oxygenation first. Assessing SpO₂ and
administering supplemental oxygen stabilizes the client while other interventions are
initiated. After oxygenation is addressed, the nurse should notify the provider and
anticipate further workup including CT angiography, anticoagulation, and ECG.
Question 5 A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV vancomycin. The client develops
flushing, erythema, and hypotension during the infusion. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take first?
A. Administer diphenhydramine IV
B. Stop the infusion immediately
C. Slow the infusion rate
D. Notify the provider
E. Document the reaction and continue monitoring
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Stop the infusion immediately
RATIONALE: The client is experiencing "Red Man Syndrome," an infusion-related
reaction to vancomycin caused by too-rapid administration. The immediate priority
action is to stop the infusion to prevent further reaction. Slowing the rate may be
appropriate for mild cases, but when hypotension is present, stopping the infusion is the
priority. The provider should be notified after the infusion is stopped. Diphenhydramine
may be administered after stopping the drug, per protocol.
Question 6 A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving total parenteral
nutrition (TPN). Which finding requires immediate action?
A. Serum glucose 180 mg/dL
B. Serum sodium 138 mEq/L
C. Serum potassium 2.8 mEq/L
D. Albumin 3.2 g/dL
E. BUN 18 mg/dL
, CORRECT ANSWER: C. Serum potassium 2.8 mEq/L
RATIONALE: A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia (normal: 3.5–5.0
mEq/L). Hypokalemia in TPN clients can cause life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias,
muscle weakness, and respiratory failure. TPN can cause electrolyte shifts (particularly
refeeding syndrome) and potassium must be closely monitored. This requires
immediate notification of the provider. Glucose of 180 is elevated but manageable. The
other values are within or near normal range.
Question 7 A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the
following dietary selections by the client indicates understanding of dietary restrictions?
A. Banana and milk
B. Orange juice and tomato soup
C. Apple and white rice
D. Avocado and bran cereal
E. Potatoes and dairy yogurt
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Apple and white rice
RATIONALE: Clients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) must restrict potassium,
phosphorus, and sodium. Apples are low in potassium and phosphorus, and white rice
is low in both potassium and phosphorus compared to whole grains. Bananas, oranges,
tomatoes, avocados, bran, and dairy products are all high in potassium and/or
phosphorus and should be avoided in CKD to prevent hyperkalemia and
hyperphosphatemia.
Question 8 A nurse is teaching a client about the use of an incentive spirometer. Which
instruction should the nurse include?
A. "Exhale forcefully into the mouthpiece."
B. "Perform the exercise once a day after meals."
C. "Breathe in slowly and steadily to raise the piston."
D. "You may cough during the exercise but stop immediately if you do."
E. "Hold the spirometer at a downward angle during use."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. "Breathe in slowly and steadily to raise the piston."
A, B & C + Bonus Practice Questions | Verified
Answers & Latest Prep Pack
ATI PN COMPREHENSIVE EXIT EXAM 2026
Practice Questions | Verified Answers
Question 1 A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin.
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
B. Heart rate of 54 beats/min
C. Blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg
D. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min
E. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Heart rate of 54 beats/min
RATIONALE: Digoxin slows the heart rate as part of its mechanism of action, but a
heart rate below 60 beats/min (bradycardia) is a sign of digoxin toxicity. The nurse
should withhold digoxin and notify the provider if the apical pulse is below 60 beats/min
in adults before administration or if bradycardia develops during therapy. Urine output,
blood pressure, respiratory rate, and potassium at these values are all within acceptable
ranges.
Question 2 A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes mellitus and reports feeling
shaky and sweaty. The client's blood glucose is 58 mg/dL. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take first?
A. Administer 1 mg glucagon intramuscularly
B. Notify the provider immediately
C. Give the client 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate
D. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position
E. Obtain a repeat blood glucose in 30 minutes
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Give the client 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate
,RATIONALE: The client is conscious and showing signs of hypoglycemia (blood
glucose 58 mg/dL, shakiness, diaphoresis). The priority action per the 15-15 rule is to
administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate (e.g., 4 oz orange juice, glucose
tablets). Glucagon is reserved for unconscious clients who cannot swallow. Notifying the
provider and rechecking glucose are subsequent actions after initial treatment.
Question 3 A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new
prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates
understanding?
A. "I will take aspirin if I have mild pain."
B. "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush."
C. "I can stop taking warfarin when I feel better."
D. "I should eat more leafy green vegetables while on this medication."
E. "I do not need to have my blood checked regularly."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush."
RATIONALE: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases bleeding risk. Using a soft-
bristled toothbrush reduces the risk of gum bleeding. Aspirin and NSAIDs should be
avoided as they potentiate anticoagulant effects and increase bleeding risk. Warfarin
must be taken as prescribed even when feeling well; stopping abruptly can cause clot
formation. Consistent intake of Vitamin K (leafy greens) is recommended — not
increased intake, as Vitamin K antagonizes warfarin. Regular INR monitoring is
essential.
Question 4 A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a hip
replacement. The client reports sudden onset of chest pain and dyspnea. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Administer prescribed analgesics
B. Elevate the head of the bed
C. Notify the surgeon immediately
D. Obtain an ECG
E. Assess oxygen saturation and administer oxygen
, CORRECT ANSWER: E. Assess oxygen saturation and administer oxygen
RATIONALE: Sudden chest pain and dyspnea in a postoperative orthopedic client are
classic signs of pulmonary embolism (PE). The priority action using the ABCs
framework is to address airway and oxygenation first. Assessing SpO₂ and
administering supplemental oxygen stabilizes the client while other interventions are
initiated. After oxygenation is addressed, the nurse should notify the provider and
anticipate further workup including CT angiography, anticoagulation, and ECG.
Question 5 A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV vancomycin. The client develops
flushing, erythema, and hypotension during the infusion. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take first?
A. Administer diphenhydramine IV
B. Stop the infusion immediately
C. Slow the infusion rate
D. Notify the provider
E. Document the reaction and continue monitoring
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Stop the infusion immediately
RATIONALE: The client is experiencing "Red Man Syndrome," an infusion-related
reaction to vancomycin caused by too-rapid administration. The immediate priority
action is to stop the infusion to prevent further reaction. Slowing the rate may be
appropriate for mild cases, but when hypotension is present, stopping the infusion is the
priority. The provider should be notified after the infusion is stopped. Diphenhydramine
may be administered after stopping the drug, per protocol.
Question 6 A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving total parenteral
nutrition (TPN). Which finding requires immediate action?
A. Serum glucose 180 mg/dL
B. Serum sodium 138 mEq/L
C. Serum potassium 2.8 mEq/L
D. Albumin 3.2 g/dL
E. BUN 18 mg/dL
, CORRECT ANSWER: C. Serum potassium 2.8 mEq/L
RATIONALE: A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia (normal: 3.5–5.0
mEq/L). Hypokalemia in TPN clients can cause life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias,
muscle weakness, and respiratory failure. TPN can cause electrolyte shifts (particularly
refeeding syndrome) and potassium must be closely monitored. This requires
immediate notification of the provider. Glucose of 180 is elevated but manageable. The
other values are within or near normal range.
Question 7 A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the
following dietary selections by the client indicates understanding of dietary restrictions?
A. Banana and milk
B. Orange juice and tomato soup
C. Apple and white rice
D. Avocado and bran cereal
E. Potatoes and dairy yogurt
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Apple and white rice
RATIONALE: Clients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) must restrict potassium,
phosphorus, and sodium. Apples are low in potassium and phosphorus, and white rice
is low in both potassium and phosphorus compared to whole grains. Bananas, oranges,
tomatoes, avocados, bran, and dairy products are all high in potassium and/or
phosphorus and should be avoided in CKD to prevent hyperkalemia and
hyperphosphatemia.
Question 8 A nurse is teaching a client about the use of an incentive spirometer. Which
instruction should the nurse include?
A. "Exhale forcefully into the mouthpiece."
B. "Perform the exercise once a day after meals."
C. "Breathe in slowly and steadily to raise the piston."
D. "You may cough during the exercise but stop immediately if you do."
E. "Hold the spirometer at a downward angle during use."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. "Breathe in slowly and steadily to raise the piston."
