NU 185 Exam 2 | Medical-Surgical Nursing II | (2026) Comprehensive
Quiz 2026 Galen College
1. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving
oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse notes the patient’s respiratory
rate is 14 breaths/min and SpO2 is 91%. What is the most appropriate nursing
action?
A. Increase the oxygen flow to 4 L/min
B. Continue to monitor the patient
C. Switch to a non-rebreather mask
D. Notify the rapid response team
Answer: B
Rationale: For patients with COPD, an SpO2 between 88% and 92% is often targeted to
prevent the suppression of the hypoxic drive. A respiratory rate of 14 is within normal
limits.
2. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find in a patient
diagnosed with right-sided heart failure?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Dyspnea on exertion
C. Pulmonary crackles
D. Orthopnea
Answer: A
Rationale: Right-sided heart failure leads to systemic venous congestion, resulting in
peripheral edema, jugular venous distention, and hepatomegaly. Left-sided failure causes
pulmonary symptoms.
,3. A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of heart failure who presents
with a dry, hacking cough. This symptom most likely indicates which of the
following?
A. Left-sided heart failure
B. Right-sided heart failure
C. Normal aging process
D. Improvement in cardiac output
Answer: A
Rationale: A cough, especially one that is worse when lying down, is an early sign of
pulmonary congestion associated with left-sided heart failure.
4. The nurse is educating a patient about a newly prescribed ACE inhibitor for
hypertension. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the patient to report
immediately?
A. Swelling of the face or tongue
B. Increased urine output
C. Occasional headache
D. Dry, non-productive cough
Answer: A
Rationale: Angioedema (swelling of the face, lips, or tongue) is a rare but life-threatening
adverse effect of ACE inhibitors that requires immediate medical attention.
5. A patient is admitted with a suspected Myocardial Infarction (MI). Which
laboratory test is most specific for diagnosing cardiac muscle damage?
A. Creatine Kinase (CK-MB)
B. Myoglobin
C. Troponin I
D. C-reactive protein
Answer: C
, Rationale: Troponin I and T are highly specific to cardiac muscle and remain elevated for
several days after an MI, making them the gold standard for diagnosis.
6. Which assessment finding is characteristic of a patient with Peripheral
Arterial Disease (PAD)?
A. Painless, irregular ulcers on the ankles
B. Warm, flushed skin on the extremities
C. Intermittent claudication
D. Heavy, aching pain relieved by elevation
Answer: C
Rationale: Intermittent claudication is muscle pain (usually in the calves) that occurs
during exercise and is relieved by rest, which is a hallmark sign of PAD.
7. A patient with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being treated with a heparin
infusion. What is the priority nursing assessment?
A. Auscultating bowel sounds
B. Measuring the patient’s daily weight
C. Checking the blood pressure every hour
D. Monitoring for signs of abnormal bleeding
Answer: D
Rationale: The primary risk associated with anticoagulant therapy like heparin is bleeding.
The nurse must monitor for hematuria, melena, or bleeding gums.
8. Which medication is the antidote for heparin overdose?
A. Vitamin K
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Glucagon
D. Acetylcysteine
Answer: B
Quiz 2026 Galen College
1. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving
oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse notes the patient’s respiratory
rate is 14 breaths/min and SpO2 is 91%. What is the most appropriate nursing
action?
A. Increase the oxygen flow to 4 L/min
B. Continue to monitor the patient
C. Switch to a non-rebreather mask
D. Notify the rapid response team
Answer: B
Rationale: For patients with COPD, an SpO2 between 88% and 92% is often targeted to
prevent the suppression of the hypoxic drive. A respiratory rate of 14 is within normal
limits.
2. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find in a patient
diagnosed with right-sided heart failure?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Dyspnea on exertion
C. Pulmonary crackles
D. Orthopnea
Answer: A
Rationale: Right-sided heart failure leads to systemic venous congestion, resulting in
peripheral edema, jugular venous distention, and hepatomegaly. Left-sided failure causes
pulmonary symptoms.
,3. A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of heart failure who presents
with a dry, hacking cough. This symptom most likely indicates which of the
following?
A. Left-sided heart failure
B. Right-sided heart failure
C. Normal aging process
D. Improvement in cardiac output
Answer: A
Rationale: A cough, especially one that is worse when lying down, is an early sign of
pulmonary congestion associated with left-sided heart failure.
4. The nurse is educating a patient about a newly prescribed ACE inhibitor for
hypertension. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the patient to report
immediately?
A. Swelling of the face or tongue
B. Increased urine output
C. Occasional headache
D. Dry, non-productive cough
Answer: A
Rationale: Angioedema (swelling of the face, lips, or tongue) is a rare but life-threatening
adverse effect of ACE inhibitors that requires immediate medical attention.
5. A patient is admitted with a suspected Myocardial Infarction (MI). Which
laboratory test is most specific for diagnosing cardiac muscle damage?
A. Creatine Kinase (CK-MB)
B. Myoglobin
C. Troponin I
D. C-reactive protein
Answer: C
, Rationale: Troponin I and T are highly specific to cardiac muscle and remain elevated for
several days after an MI, making them the gold standard for diagnosis.
6. Which assessment finding is characteristic of a patient with Peripheral
Arterial Disease (PAD)?
A. Painless, irregular ulcers on the ankles
B. Warm, flushed skin on the extremities
C. Intermittent claudication
D. Heavy, aching pain relieved by elevation
Answer: C
Rationale: Intermittent claudication is muscle pain (usually in the calves) that occurs
during exercise and is relieved by rest, which is a hallmark sign of PAD.
7. A patient with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being treated with a heparin
infusion. What is the priority nursing assessment?
A. Auscultating bowel sounds
B. Measuring the patient’s daily weight
C. Checking the blood pressure every hour
D. Monitoring for signs of abnormal bleeding
Answer: D
Rationale: The primary risk associated with anticoagulant therapy like heparin is bleeding.
The nurse must monitor for hematuria, melena, or bleeding gums.
8. Which medication is the antidote for heparin overdose?
A. Vitamin K
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Glucagon
D. Acetylcysteine
Answer: B
