Pathophysiology Final Detailed Exam Questions and Verified Solutions 2026

Pathophysiology Final Detailed Exam Questions and Verified Solutions 2026 The human body requires cholesterol. It is used to construct: a. muscle fibers b. proteins c. DNA d. the cell membrane - Correct Answer-correct answer: d. the cell membrane Cholesterol is used by the cell to construct the phospholipid bilayer of the cell membrane. Every cell in the body. Mitochondria contain the enzymes necessary for: a. gluconeogenesis b. phagocytosis c. photosynthesis d. ATP production - Correct Answer-correct answer: d. ATP production Mitochondria are the powerhouses of the cell. Their main function is to produce ATP. The movement of ions through the sodium-potassium pump is an example of ________. a. osmosis b. active transport c. simple diffusion d. passive transport - Correct Answer-correct answer: b. active transport The sodium-potassium pump is an example of an active transport pump. Active transport requires an energy input; in this case, ATP. In the resting membrane potential, potassium is predominantly an ________-cellular ion and sodium is predominantly an ________-cellular ion. a. extra-; intra- b. intra-; intra- c. intra-; extra- d. extra-; extra- - Correct Answer-correct answer: c. intra-; extra- Sodium in predominantly an extracellular ion, with a normal serum concentration of 135 145 mEq/L and intracellular concentration of 3.5-5 mEq/L. Potassium is largely an intracellular ion, at concentrations of 135-145 mEq/L intracellularly and extracellular concentration of 3.5-5 mEq/L. Pathophysiology Pathophysiology During the action potential of a muscle or nerve cells, sodium rushing into the cell causes an ________ response. - Correct Answer-correct answer: all or none An all-or-none response occurs after sodium influx, which results in the subsequent phases of the action potential. Once sodium influxes into the cell, conduction cannot be stopped. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, requires the heart to become stronger. The cell's adaption strategy in response to hypertension is ________. a. atrophy b. hypertrophy c. metaplasia d. dysplasia - Correct Answer-correct answer: b. hypertrophy Hypertrophy is the equivalent of body builders getting huge from lifting weights. Gangrene is an example of: a. hyperplasia b. apoptosis c. necrosis d. cellular aging - Correct Answer-correct answer: c. necrosis An individual who carries a copy of the gene is a carrier. A synonym for carrier, in this case, is ________. a. recessive b. dominant c. heterozygous d. homozygous - Correct Answer-correct answer: c. heterozygous Huntington's disease is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder. One strange and cruel feature of Huntington's disease is that patients usually have had children by the time symptoms emerge. What is the likelihood that children of parents—each homozygous (i.e. HH and HH)—will inherit the disease? a. 25% b. 75% c. 50% d. 100% - Correct Answer-correct answer: d. 100% Since Huntington's disease follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, any dominant allele (i.e. "big H") that is passed on will result in the disease. In the case of two homozygous parents, 100% of the offspring will have the disease. What is epigenetics? - Correct Answer-Epigenetics is the study of changes in organisms caused by modification of gene expression rather than alteration of the genetic code itself. Pathophysiology Pathophysiology Antigen-presenting cells function to: a. initiate the complement cascade by way of the alternate pathway b. stimulate cytokine production by macrophages c. phagocytose and degrade foreign antigens d. display foreign antigen on their cell surfaces bound to MHC - Correct Answer-correct answer: d. display foreign antigen on their cell surfaces bound to MHC Which clinical finding is most indicative of an acute bacterial infection? a. increased (band) neutrophils b. elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate c. elevated WBC count d. elevated temperature - Correct Answer-correct answer: a. increased (band) neutrophils Remember that initially in the stress response (release of cortisol) WBCs are released from their moorings along the vessel walls. It takes time for more WBCs to be produced in the bone marrow and the first WBCs to be released are immature "teenagers" who haven't yet matured into fully functional neutrophils. THAT's the indication that there's an active infection. We call it a "left shift;" a shift to less mature cells in response to active infection. Interleukin-1, interleukin-6, and tumor necrosis factor-α are inflammatory cytokines secreted by: a. lymphocytes b. plasma cells c. neutrophils d. macrophages - Correct Answer-correct answer: d. macrophages Immunity to a specific organism can be determined by a lab test to check the ________. a. erythrocyte sedimentation rate b. WBC count c. antibody titer d. active phase protein count - Correct Answer-correct answer: c. antibody titer The primary function of B cells is: a. killing antigen-presenting cells b. making (i.e. synthesizing) antibodies c. secreting cytokines d. killing virally infected cells - Correct Answer-correct answer: b. making (i.e. synthesizing) antibodies B cells = antibodies Dramatic hypotension sometimes accompanies type I hypersensitivity reactions because: Pathophysiology Pathophysiology a. massive histamine release from mast cells leads to vasodilation b. anaphylaxis results in large volume losses secondary to sweating c. toxins released into the blood interfere with cardiac function d. hypoxia resulting from bronchoconstriction impairs cardiac function - Correct Answer correct answer: a. massive histamine release from mast cells leads to vasodilation Massive histamine release causes extreme vasodilation, which can result in severe hypotension (e.g. anaphylactic shock). We treat these patients initially with large amounts of IV fluid. Which disorder is considered a primary immunodeficiency disease? a. HIV/AIDS b. malnutrition immunodeficiency c. cancer immunodeficiency d. radiation immunodeficiency - Correct Answer-correct answer: a. HIV/AIDS HIV/AIDS is the only problem listed that directly causes immunocompromise by directly attacking the CD4 cells. The other listed mechanisms are secondary to some other problem—malnutrition causes decreased production of immune cells because the body doesn't have the building blocks to make the cells; cancer immunodeficiency is caused by the drugs we use to treat the cancer; and, radiation destroys impacts the ability of bone marrow to produce immune cells. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID; i.e. "boy in the bubble") syndrome is an example of a(n): a. deficient immune response b. primary acquired immunodeficiency c. excessive immune response d. hypersensitivity reaction - Correct Answer-correct answer: a. deficient immune response SCID is a deficient immune response caused by a genetic trait that prevents production of B-cells and T-cells. A primary effector cell of the type I hypersensitivity response is: a. neutrophils b. mast cells c. monocytes d. cytotoxic cells - Correct Answer-correct answer: b. mast cells The hypersensitivity reaction that does not involve antibody production is type: a. II b. III c. I d. IV - Correct Answer-correct answer: d. IV Pathophysiology Pathophysiology Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are cell-mediated, not immunoglobulin-mediated. Type IV reactions are unique in that sense. The primary source of erythropoietin is provided by the: a. lung b. bone marrow c. liver d. kidney - Correct Answer-correct answer: d. kidney Erythropoietin is produced by the kidneys in response to oxygen levels in the blood that flow through the glomerulus. What is necessary for red blood cell production? a. calcium b. iron c. phosphate d. magnesium - Correct Answer-correct answer: b. iron Iron is the major building block of hemoglobin and RBCs. Which characteristic is indicative of hemolytic anemia? a. jaundice b. increased total iron-binding capacity c. hypovolemia d. increased heart rate - Correct Answer-correct answer: a. jaundice Hemolysis, the breakdown of RBCs, causes the body to try to preserve the "building blocks" B12, folate and iron. To get to the iron, hemoglobin must be broken down. The breakdown of hemoglobin produces (indirectly) bilirubin, an excess of which causes jaundice. A low mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) are characteristics of which type of anemia? a. vitamin B12 deficiency b. iron deficiency c. folate deficiency d. erythropoietin deficiency - Correct Answer-correct answer: b. iron deficiency Iron deficient anemia is characterized by hypochromic (pale) and microcytic (small) RBCs. Relative cell size is gotten from the MCHC and the relative color of the cell, which is a function of the amount of hemoglobin present, is gotten from the MCV. Dysfunction of which organ would lead to clotting factor deficiency? a. pancreas b. kidney c. spleen Pathophysiology Pathophysiology d. liver - Correct Answer-correct answer: d. liver The liver has 9 functions, one of which is synthesizing clotting proteins. The severity of liver failure can be estimated by looking at the prothrombin time (pro time or PT). The megakaryocyte is a precursor to: a. platelets b. factor IX c. red blood cells d. white blood cells - Correct Answer-correct answer: a. platelets Widespread activation of the clotting cascade secondary to massive trauma is called: a. Hageman disease b. hemophilia B c. idiopathic intravascular purpura d. disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) - Correct Answer-correct answer: d. disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) A 3 year old boy who exhibits prolonged bleeding after minor trauma and a prolonged aPTT, but a normal platelet count, is likely to be diagnosed with: a. hemophilia b. thrombocytopenia c. disseminated intravascular coagulation c. liver dysfunction - Correct Answer-correct answer: a. hemophilia Renal insufficiency is a common complication of which disease? a. myeloma b. chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) c. Hodgkin disease d. chronic lymphoid leukemia (CLL) - Correct Answer-correct answer: a. myeloma Myeloma is a disease of the plasma cells. Abnormal (Bence Jones) proteins accumulate in the kidneys and malignant plasma cells take up residence in bone; both of these processes have deleterious effects on the kidneys. A 5-year-old patient's parents report loss of appetite and fatigue in their child. The parents also state that the child refuses to walk as a result of pain. Of the leukemias, the child's most likely diagnosis is: a. ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia) b. CLL (chronic lymphoid leukemia) c. CML (chronic myeloid leukemia) d. AML (acute myeloid leukemia) - Correct Answer-correct answer: a. ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia) ALL is, by far, the most common childhood leukemia. Pathophysiology Pathophysiology The most reliable indicator that a person is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (MI) is: a. pain radiating to the lower legs b. severe, crushing chest pain c. ST-segment elevation on the EKG d. dysrhythmias - Correct Answer-correct answer: c. ST-segment elevation on the EKG An example of an acyanotic heart defect is: a. all right-to-left shunt defects b. ventricular septal defect c. transportation of the great arteries c. tetralogy of Fallot - Correct Answer-correct answer: b. ventricular septal defect Constrictive pericarditis is associated with: a. increased cardiac preload b. impaired cardiac filling c. cardiac hypertrophy d. elevated myocardial oxygen consumption - Correct Answer-correct answer: b. impaired cardiac filling Aortic regurgitation is associated with: a. diastolic murmur b. shortened ventricular ejection phase c. elevated LV-aortic systolic pressure gradient d. elevated systemic diastolic blood pressure - Correct Answer-correct answer: a. diastolic murmur Regurgitant lesions are caused by backward leaking of the valve, in this case the aortic valve. The aortic valve is intended to prevent blood from leaking back into the ventricle during diastole. So the murmur of aortic regurgitation is a diastolic decrescendo murmur. While hospitalized, an elderly patient with a history of myocardial infarction was noted to have high levels of low-density lipoproteins (LDL). What is the significance of this finding? a. elevated LDL levels are an expected finding in the elderly and therefore are not particularly significant b. increased LDL levels are associated with increased risk of coronary artery disease c. increased LDL levels are indicative of moderate alcohol intake, and patients should be advised to abstain d. measures to decrease LDL levels in the elderly would be unlikely to affect the progression of this disease - Correct Answer-correct answer: b. increased LDL levels are associated with increased risk of coronary artery disease A patient with a history of myocardial infarction continues to complain of intermittent chest pain brought on by exertion and relieved by rest. The likely cause of this pain is: Pathophysiology Pathophysiology a. coronary vasospasm b. myocardial infarction c. chronic stable angina d. unstable angina - Correct Answer-correct answer: c. chronic stable angina Chronic stable angina is the best outcome we can hope for in CAD. It's typical angina that occurs only with heavy exertion. Which serum biomarker(s) are indicative of irreversible damage to myocardial cells? a. markedly decreased CK-MB and troponin I b. prolonged coagulation time c. elevated LDL d. elevated CK-MB, troponin I, and troponin T - Correct Answer-correct answer: d. elevated CK-MB, troponin I, and troponin T A patient with severe aortic stenosis could be expected to complain of ____ with exertion. a. peripheral edema b. calf pain c. dizziness d. nausea or vomiting - Correct Answer-correct answer: c. dizziness Severe AS is associated with three symptoms that occur because of a lack of blood getting through the aortic valve: chest pain, dyspnea, dizziness/syncope. Angina caused by coronary artery spasm is called ________ angina. a. stable b. Prinzmetal variant c. unstable d. classic - Correct Answer-correct answer: b. Prinzmetal variant Hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds are classic manifestations of: a. cardiomyopathy b. myocardial infarction c. congestive heart failure (CHF) d. cardiac tamponade - Correct Answer-correct answer: d. cardiac tamponade Cardiac tamponade is due to fluid in the pericardial sack, whether blood, clear fluid (transudate) or pus (exudate). When it occurs, the pressures in the heart equalize and ventricular filling is impaired. It causes severe symptoms and the classic triad of symptoms: muffled heart sounds, hypotension and distended neck veins. It's a medical emergency. Left-sided heart failure is characterized by: a. peripheral edema Pathophysiology Pathophysiology b. jugular vein distention c. pulmonary congestion d. decreased systemic vascular resistance - Correct Answer-correct answer: c. pulmonary congestion Backward (from the LV) is the lungs. Pulmonary congestion occurs because the LV fails to push blood forward to the aorta and the rest of the systemic circulation. The common denominator in all forms of heart failure is: a. poor diastolic filling b. tissue ischemia c. reduced cardiac output d. pulmonary edema - Correct Answer-correct answer: c. reduced cardiac output Cor pulmonale refers to: a. biventricular failure b. right heart failure secondary to pulmonary hypertension c. right ventricular failure secondary to right ventricular infarction d. left ventricular hypertrophy secondary to lung disease - Correct Answer-correct answer: b. right heart failure secondary to pulmonary hypertension Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is associated with: a. altered automaticity b. impaired diastolic relaxation c. poor contractile force d. altered action potential conduction rate - Correct Answer-correct answer: b. impaired diastolic relaxation Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is abnormally thick heart muscle that does not relax well. First-degree heart block is characterized by: a. variable PR interval b. widened QRS complex c. prolonged PR interval d. absent P waves - Correct Answer-correct answer: c. prolonged PR interval An abnormally wide (more than 0.10 second) QRS complex is characteristic of: a. paroxysmal atrial tachycardia b. junctional rhythm c. supraventricular tachycardia d. ventricular tachycardia - Correct Answer-correct answer: d. ventricular tachycardia a laboratory test that can help identify heart failure is: a. complete blood count b. serum potassium c. blood urea nitrogen Pathophysiology Pathophysiology d. b-natriuretic peptide - Correct Answer-correct answer: d. b-natriuretic peptide A patient is exhibiting severe dyspnea and anxiety. The patient also has bubbly crackles in all lung fields with pink, frothy sputum. This patient is most likely experiencing: a. pulmonary edema b. cardiomyopathy c. right heart failure d. a medication reaction - Correct Answer-correct answer: a. pulmonary edema Patients with structural evidence of heart failure who exhibit no signs or symptoms are classified into which New York Heart Association heart failure class? a. class I b. stage A c. stage D d. class IV - Correct Answer-correct answer: a. class I The NYHA heart failure classification system indicates a patient's current symptoms, with class I being asymptomatic and class IV being symptoms at rest. Increased preload may lead to which patient symptom: a. edema b. decreased respiratory rate c. excitability d. decreased heart rate - Correct Answer-correct answer: a. edema Shifts in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve represent the: a. effect of carbonic anhydrase on the uptake of CO2 b. changes in hemoglobin affinity for oxygen c. ability of blood to pick up more CO2 when PaO2 is low d. amount of hydrogen in solution in the blood - Correct Answer-correct answer: b. changes in hemoglobin affinity for oxygen Remember, a shift to the right of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve (e.g. acidosis, hypercapnia, etc.) makes oxygen fall off the hemoglobin molecule more readily. Which person is at greatest risk for developing a pulmonary embolism? a. a 42 year old women with a broken ankle b. a 25 year old man with asthma c. a 67 year old man with deep vein thrombosis in the femoral vein d. a 28 year old woman in the first trimester of a normal pregnancy - Correct Answer correct answer: c. a 67 year old man with deep vein thrombosis in the femoral vein Pulmonary embolism is usually caused by a peripheral blood clot (i.e. deep vein thrombosis) traveling to the pulmonary circulation. Other causes of PE include amniotic embolus or fat embolus (often due to trauma or orthopedic surgery). Pathophysiology Pathophysiology Chronic pulmonary hypertension can eventually cause which complication? a. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease b. pulmonary emboli c. right heart failure d. respiratory acidosis - Correct Answer-correct answer: c. right heart failure That's cor pulmonale. Allergic (extrinsic) asthma is associated with: a. irreversible airway obstruction b. IgE-mediated airway inflammation c. hyporesponsiveness of airways d. unknown precipitating factors - Correct Answer-correct answer: b. IgE-mediated airway inflammation Here you have to recall some information about hypersensitivity reactions from previous weeks. Remember that type I hypersensitivity reactions are IgE-mediated allergic reactions. Allergy is what characterizes intrinsic asthma. Copious amounts of foul-smelling sputum are generally associated with: a. bronchiectasis b. emphysema c. epiglottis d. pulmonary edema - Correct Answer-correct answer: a. bronchiectasis Bronchiectasis is caused by dilation of lower airways, which disrupts airflow and results in excess mucus buildup and infection. Obstructive disorders are associated with: a. low residual volumes b. increased expiratory reserve volume c. decreased total lung capacity d. low expiratory flow rate - Correct Answer-correct answer: d. low expiratory flow rates Obstructive lung diseases are characterized by air trapping, which produces low expiratory flow on pulmonary function tests. A patient on a ventilator for one week following severe pneumonia has high peak airway pressures and poor oxygen saturations despite 100% oxygen. He most likely has developed: a. cor pulmonales b. asthma c. acute respiratory distress syndrome d. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease - Correct Answer-correct answer: c. acute respiratory distress syndrome Pathophysiology Pathophysiology Which is indicative of a left tension pneumothorax? a. coarse crackles throughout the left chest b. absent breath sounds on the left c. tracheal deviation to the left d. respiratory acidosis - Correct Answer-correct answer: b. absent breath sounds on the left Pneumothorax results in absent breath sounds and tracheal deviation AWAY FROM the side of the pneumothorax. Accumulation of fluid in the pleural space is called: a. pulmonary edema b. pneumonia c. flail chest d. pleural effusion - Correct Answer-correct answer: d. pleural effusion Neuromuscular disorders (e.g. ALS, poliomyelitis) impair lung function primarily because of: a. secondary pneumonia b. inactivity secondary to the disorder c. weak muscles of respiration d. inflammatory events in the lungs - Correct Answer- The glomerular filtration rate is most accurately reflected in the: a. blood urea nitrogen level b. urinary output c. serum osmolality d. serum creatinine level - Correct Answer-correct answer: d. serum creatinine level A person with acute pyelonephritis would most typically experience: a. hypertension b. oliguria c. edema d. fever - Correct Answer-correct answer: d. fever Pyelonephritis is infection of the kidney and/or ureter. As with most bacterial infections, fever is a hallmark. Signs consistent with a diagnosis of glomerulonephritis include: a. foul-smelling urine b. proteinuria c. anuria d. red blood cell casts in the urine - Correct Answer-correct answer: b. proteinuria The most common sign/symptoms of renal calculi is: a. vomiting Pathophysiology Pathophysiology b. pain c. oliguria d. hematuria - Correct Answer-correct answer: b. pain One cause of an extrinsic renal system obstruction is: a. clot b. neurogenic bladder c. pelvic tumor d. papillary necrosis - Correct Answer-correct answer: c. pelvic tumor Appropriate therapy for prerenal kidney injury includes: a. potassium supplementation b. fluid administration c. fluid restriction d. protein restriction - Correct Answer- A patient with renal disease is at risk for developing uremia as the nephrons progressively deteriorate because: a. the basement membrane becomes increasingly permeable b. GFR declines c. filtration exceeds secretory and reabsorptive capacity d. excessive solute and water are lost in the urine - Correct Answer-correct answer: b. GFR declines A primary laboratory finding in end-stage chronic renal disease is: a. metabolic alkalosis b. increased serum creatinine c. decrease serum sodium d. decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) - Correct Answer-correct answer: b. increased serum creatinine The condition associated with end-stage chronic renal disease that is the most immediately life threatening is: a. increased creatinine b. hyperkalemia c. hypertension d. azotemia - Correct Answer-correct answer: b. hyperkalemia The direct cause of stress incontinence is: a. pelvic muscle weakness b. detrusor muscle overactivity c. the effect of aging d. neurologic conditions - Correct Answer-correct answer: a. pelvic muscle weakness The concentration of ________ in the serum is a strong indicator of the relative oncotic pressure. Pathophysiology Pathophysiology a. lactate b. water c. sodium d. albumin - Correct Answer-correct answer: d. albumin The oncotic pressure is a function of the protein content of the blood. Severe ________ is characterized by bradycardia, hypotension, and widening of the PR and QRS intervals. a. hypermagnesemia b. hypocalcemia c. hypokalemia d. hyperkalemia - Correct Answer-correct answer: d. hyperkalemia A patient with septic shock is acidemic and has an elevated lactate (e.g. lactic acid) level. You know that this is generally associated with ________. a. hyponatremia b. hypertension c. an anion gap over 12 d. respiratory alkalosis - Correct Answer-correct answer: c. an anion gap over 12 Your patient has the following blood gas: pH 7.28PCO2 72HCO3- 28 This blood gas represents ________. a. respiratory acidosis b. respiratory alkalosis c. metabolic alkalosis d. metabolic acidosis - Correct Answer-correct answer: a. respiratory acidosis An appropriate snack for a patient with end-stage renal disease would be any of these EXCEPT ________. a. chips and guacamole b. tea and toast c. strawberries d. applesauce - Correct Answer-correct answer: a. chips and guacamole A patient is seen in the emergency department with a transverse (straight across) fracture of the humerus. The redness, warmth and swelling at the site of the fracture are due to bleeding and ________. a. necrosis b. apoptosis c. inflammation d. infection - Correct Answer-correct answer: c. inflammation Mr. Jones is sent home the day after gall bladder surgery. Three days later he is seen by the home care nurse. Which finding would be most concerning to the nurse? Pathophysiology Pathophysiology a. pain at the incisional site that is getting better every day b. temperature of 100.8 orally c. sleeping 11 hours per day d. pulse of 90 beats per minute - Correct Answer-correct answer: b. temperature of 100.8 orally A temperature ≥ 100.4 is suspicious for infection. Pain at the incision site is expected, and it's reassuring that it's improving every day. A heart rate of 90 is normal, as is the need for more sleep. Mrs. Bell is admitted to the hospital with a heart attack. All the following would be expected as part of the stress response, except: a. increased blood sugar b. increased blood pressure c. increased heart rate d. wheezing (due to bronchoconstriction) - Correct Answer-correct answer: d. wheezing (due to bronchoconstriction) Gram ____ bacteria have more complex cellular structures and are more challenging to treat. a. positive b. negative - Correct Answer-correct answer: b. negative White blood cells (WBCs) that reside in the tissues are termed ________. a. lymphocytes b. cytokines c. macrophages d. eosinophils - Correct Answer-correct answer: c. macrophages Marcophages are just WBCs that have moved out of the vasculature and into the surrounding tissues. Eosinophils are specialized WBCs that are prevalent in the allergic response. Lymphocytes arise from the lymphoid tissue and are associated with immunity. Teratogens are chemicals known to cause: a. birth defects b. inflammation c. cancer d. infection - Correct Answer-correct answer: a. birth defects Tumors that have rapid growth, are not encapsulated, and have poorly differentiated cells are characteristically: a. malignant b. benign - Correct Answer-correct answer: a. malignant Pathophysiology Pathophysiology Benign tumors are slow growing, have a well-defined capsule, usually non-invasive, well-differentiated and not likely to metastasize. Diseases like rheumatoid arthritis and type 1 diabetes mellitus are ________ hypersensitivity reactions mediated by ________. a. cell-mediated; T-cells b. IgE-mediated; T-cells c. cell-mediated; cytokines d. IgE-mediated; cytokines - Correct Answer-correct answer: a. cell-mediated; T-cells Cell-mediated hypersensitivity reactions: •Mediated by T-cells, not antibodies •Direct attack and destruction of target cells by killer T-cells •As in rheumatoid arthritis (RA), Hashimoto's thyroiditis, type I DM The following are potential mechanisms of cell injury: (select all that apply) - infectious or immunologic injury - radiation injury - nutritional injury - ischemic injury - chemical injury - physical and mechanical injury - Correct Answer-correct answer: all are correct Johnny Miliken is a 12-year-old lacrosse player who sprained his ankle. He asks you "what causes it to swell like that?" Your best response is, "that's part of the body's way of healing, called inflammation. The swelling is caused by ________." a. fluid from your blood leaking into the area around the sprain b. the cells repairing themselves c. white blood cells invading d. the growth of new cells - Correct Answer-correct answer: c. fluid from your blood leaking into the area around the sprain