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CMN 552 – Module 4 Exam | Questions and
Answers | 2026 Update | 100% Correct –USA.
Primary Care Assessment & Health Promotion
Question 1: Which component is most critical when performing a focused primary
care assessment?
A) Past medical history
B) Family history
C) Presenting complaint and HPI
D) Immunization record
Correct Answer-: C) Presenting complaint and HPI
Rationale: The History of Present Illness (HPI) guides the physical examination,
differential diagnosis, and management plan. It is the foundation upon which all
other assessment components are built .
Question 2: A 55-year-old patient comes for routine care. Which screening is
considered primary prevention?
A) Colonoscopy
B) Blood pressure measurement
C) HbA1c
D) Smoking cessation counseling
Correct Answer-: D) Smoking cessation counseling
Rationale: Primary prevention focuses on preventing disease before it occurs.
Smoking cessation counseling aims to prevent tobacco-related diseases such as
lung cancer, COPD, and cardiovascular disease before they develop .
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Question 3: Which screening is an example of secondary prevention?
A) Vaccination
B) Mammography
C) Dietary counseling
D) Smoking cessation
Correct Answer-: B) Mammography
Rationale: Secondary prevention detects disease early in its course, before
symptoms develop, to improve outcomes. Mammography screens for breast
cancer in asymptomatic women .
Question 4: A patient's psychosocial history should include assessment of:
A) Family medical history only
B) Occupation and education
C) Social support and stressors
D) Favorite hobbies
Correct Answer-: C) Social support and stressors
Rationale: Psychosocial factors such as social support, stressors, and coping
mechanisms significantly influence health outcomes, adherence to treatment,
and overall well-being. These factors are essential components of a
comprehensive patient assessment .
Question 5: Which patient is at highest risk for chronic disease?
A) 25-year-old non-smoker, BMI 22
B) 50-year-old hypertensive, BMI 32, sedentary
C) 30-year-old active runner
D) 40-year-old vegetarian, BMI 24
Correct Answer-: B) 50-year-old hypertensive, BMI 32, sedentary
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Rationale: Multiple risk factors—including hypertension, obesity, sedentary
lifestyle, and age—synergistically increase the likelihood of developing chronic
diseases such as cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and metabolic syndrome .
Question 6: Which assessment finding is non-specific for diabetes?
A) Polyuria
B) Fatigue
C) Blurred vision
D) Bradycardia
Correct Answer-: D) Bradycardia
Rationale: Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not commonly associated with
diabetes. Classic diabetes symptoms include polyuria, polydipsia, fatigue, and
blurred vision. Bradycardia is more characteristic of conditions such as
hypothyroidism or heart block .
Question 7: Which immunization is recommended for adults aged 50–64?
A) HPV
B) Zoster (Shingrix)
C) MMR
D) Hep B
Correct Answer-: B) Zoster (Shingrix)
Rationale: The CDC recommends the recombinant zoster vaccine (Shingrix) for all
adults age 50 and older to prevent shingles (herpes zoster) and its complications,
regardless of whether they previously had shingles or received the older live
vaccine .
Question 8: What is the most reliable method to assess patient adherence?
A) Ask patient directly
B) Pharmacy refill records
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C) Observation only
D) Guess based on outcomes
Correct Answer-: B) Pharmacy refill records
Rationale: Pharmacy refill records provide objective, quantifiable data about
medication adherence. While patient self-report is important, it can be subject to
recall bias or social desirability; refill records offer a more accurate measure of
adherence over time .
Question 9: During assessment, the nurse notes weight gain and edema. What is
most important to evaluate next?
A) Dietary preferences
B) Cardiac and renal function
C) Exercise frequency
D) Family history
Correct Answer-: B) Cardiac and renal function
Rationale: Weight gain and edema may indicate fluid retention secondary to
heart failure (reduced cardiac output) or kidney dysfunction (impaired sodium
and water excretion). These require prompt evaluation to prevent further
complications .
Question 10: Which tool is most appropriate for depression screening in primary
care?
A) PHQ-9
B) MMSE
C) GAD-7
D) MoCA
Correct Answer-: A) PHQ-9
Rationale: The Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9) is a validated, brief, and
widely used screening tool for depression in primary care settings. It assesses the
nine DSM-5 criteria for major depressive disorder .
CMN 552 – Module 4 Exam | Questions and
Answers | 2026 Update | 100% Correct –USA.
Primary Care Assessment & Health Promotion
Question 1: Which component is most critical when performing a focused primary
care assessment?
A) Past medical history
B) Family history
C) Presenting complaint and HPI
D) Immunization record
Correct Answer-: C) Presenting complaint and HPI
Rationale: The History of Present Illness (HPI) guides the physical examination,
differential diagnosis, and management plan. It is the foundation upon which all
other assessment components are built .
Question 2: A 55-year-old patient comes for routine care. Which screening is
considered primary prevention?
A) Colonoscopy
B) Blood pressure measurement
C) HbA1c
D) Smoking cessation counseling
Correct Answer-: D) Smoking cessation counseling
Rationale: Primary prevention focuses on preventing disease before it occurs.
Smoking cessation counseling aims to prevent tobacco-related diseases such as
lung cancer, COPD, and cardiovascular disease before they develop .
,2
Question 3: Which screening is an example of secondary prevention?
A) Vaccination
B) Mammography
C) Dietary counseling
D) Smoking cessation
Correct Answer-: B) Mammography
Rationale: Secondary prevention detects disease early in its course, before
symptoms develop, to improve outcomes. Mammography screens for breast
cancer in asymptomatic women .
Question 4: A patient's psychosocial history should include assessment of:
A) Family medical history only
B) Occupation and education
C) Social support and stressors
D) Favorite hobbies
Correct Answer-: C) Social support and stressors
Rationale: Psychosocial factors such as social support, stressors, and coping
mechanisms significantly influence health outcomes, adherence to treatment,
and overall well-being. These factors are essential components of a
comprehensive patient assessment .
Question 5: Which patient is at highest risk for chronic disease?
A) 25-year-old non-smoker, BMI 22
B) 50-year-old hypertensive, BMI 32, sedentary
C) 30-year-old active runner
D) 40-year-old vegetarian, BMI 24
Correct Answer-: B) 50-year-old hypertensive, BMI 32, sedentary
,3
Rationale: Multiple risk factors—including hypertension, obesity, sedentary
lifestyle, and age—synergistically increase the likelihood of developing chronic
diseases such as cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and metabolic syndrome .
Question 6: Which assessment finding is non-specific for diabetes?
A) Polyuria
B) Fatigue
C) Blurred vision
D) Bradycardia
Correct Answer-: D) Bradycardia
Rationale: Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not commonly associated with
diabetes. Classic diabetes symptoms include polyuria, polydipsia, fatigue, and
blurred vision. Bradycardia is more characteristic of conditions such as
hypothyroidism or heart block .
Question 7: Which immunization is recommended for adults aged 50–64?
A) HPV
B) Zoster (Shingrix)
C) MMR
D) Hep B
Correct Answer-: B) Zoster (Shingrix)
Rationale: The CDC recommends the recombinant zoster vaccine (Shingrix) for all
adults age 50 and older to prevent shingles (herpes zoster) and its complications,
regardless of whether they previously had shingles or received the older live
vaccine .
Question 8: What is the most reliable method to assess patient adherence?
A) Ask patient directly
B) Pharmacy refill records
, 4
C) Observation only
D) Guess based on outcomes
Correct Answer-: B) Pharmacy refill records
Rationale: Pharmacy refill records provide objective, quantifiable data about
medication adherence. While patient self-report is important, it can be subject to
recall bias or social desirability; refill records offer a more accurate measure of
adherence over time .
Question 9: During assessment, the nurse notes weight gain and edema. What is
most important to evaluate next?
A) Dietary preferences
B) Cardiac and renal function
C) Exercise frequency
D) Family history
Correct Answer-: B) Cardiac and renal function
Rationale: Weight gain and edema may indicate fluid retention secondary to
heart failure (reduced cardiac output) or kidney dysfunction (impaired sodium
and water excretion). These require prompt evaluation to prevent further
complications .
Question 10: Which tool is most appropriate for depression screening in primary
care?
A) PHQ-9
B) MMSE
C) GAD-7
D) MoCA
Correct Answer-: A) PHQ-9
Rationale: The Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9) is a validated, brief, and
widely used screening tool for depression in primary care settings. It assesses the
nine DSM-5 criteria for major depressive disorder .