AMT MLT (MEDICAL LABORATORY
TECHNICIANS) EXAM STUDY GUIDE
2026/2027 COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH
VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS ||
100% GUARANTEED PASS
<NEWEST VERSION>
1. Beginning with the moment the specimen is collected and transported to the
laboratory, to the analysis itself and the reporting of the results, must be
documented by a process known as - ANSWER ✔ Chain of custody.
2. A process that monitors the accuracy and reproducibility of results through
the use of control specimens. - ANSWER ✔ Quality control
3. Describes how close a test result is to the true value. - ANSWER ✔
Accuracy
4. The comparison of an instrument measurement or reading to a known
physical constant. - ANSWER ✔ Calibration
5. What category of bioterrorism agents has the following characteristics?
These agents have the third-highest priority and include emerging pathogens
that could be engineered for mass dissemination in the future because of
availability, ease of production and dissemination? - ANSWER ✔ Category
C
,6. Agents anthrax, botulism, plague, smallpox, tularemia, filoviruses, and
arenaviruses are classified as - ANSWER ✔ Category A.
7. What regulation that became law in 1992, requires that laboratories develop,
implement, and comply with a plan that ensures the protective safety of
laboratory staff to potential infectious blood-borne pathogens and manage
and handle medical waste in a safe and effective manner? - ANSWER ✔
Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens
8. Class C fire extinguishers are used for - ANSWER ✔ Electric equipment.
9. Agents brucellosis, epsilon toxin, food contaminants, glanders, melioidosis,
psittacosis, Q fever, and ricin toxin are classified as - ANSWER ✔ Category
B.
10.Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs) are now called: - ANSWER ✔ Safety
Data Sheets
11.What are defined as antibodies that are stimulated by one antigen and react
with an entirely unrelated surface antigen present on cells from different
mammalian species? - ANSWER ✔ Heterophil antibodies
12.If the antibody directed toward the agent being assayed is fixed firmly to a
solid matrix, either to the outside of a spherical plastic or metal bead or some
other solid matrix, the system is called - ANSWER ✔ Solid-phase
immunosorbent assay (SPIA).
13.What molecular technique can determine single-base mutations that include
sickle cell anemia and hemophilia A? - ANSWER ✔ Southern blot
,14.What is the widely used nontreponemal serological test? - ANSWER ✔
Rapid plasma regain (RPR)
15.What is the technique that uses a conjugated antibody to detect antigen-
antibody reactions that can be seen with a fluorescent microscope? -
ANSWER ✔ . Direct immunofluorescent assay
16.What is based on the reaction between patient antibodies in the serum,
known as the rheumatoid factor (RF), and an antigen derived from human
gamma globulin (IgG)? - ANSWER ✔ Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
agglutination test
17.What is the term applied to aggregation of particulate test antigens? -
ANSWER ✔ Agglutination
18.What is the term used to describe the aggregation of soluble test antigens? -
ANSWER ✔ Precipitation
19.What is influenced by molecular size, foreignness, shape of the molecule,
and chemical composition? - ANSWER ✔ Antigenicity
20.What is the source of antigen for performing the forward group ABO/D
typing? - ANSWER ✔ Patient cells
21.If you mix an unknown antigen (patient red cell) with a known antibody
(Anti-A) and get visible agglutination, which unknown antigen is detected? -
ANSWER ✔ A
, 22.The antiglobulin test is important because it detects what antibodies that
have attached to red cells either in vivo or in vitro but do not demonstrate
visible agglutination in testing? - ANSWER ✔ IgG
23.One method to avoid reactivity with a cold antibody is - ANSWER ✔
perform a pre-warm technique.
24.During a major side crossmatch compatibility for packed red blood cells,
what is used for testing? - ANSWER ✔ Patient serum with donor cells
25.If during an immediate spin crossmatch, if the results are incompatible what
is likely the cause? - ANSWER ✔ Patient identification error
26.The immune serum globulin that is given to D negative pregnant mothers is
to prevent production of which antibody following delivery? - ANSWER ✔
Anti-D
27.What is the maximum amount of fetomaternal hemorrhage (FMH) D
positive fetal red cells a women is allowed to lose for one dose of RhIG? -
ANSWER ✔ 30 mL
28.IgG antibody complexes on red blood cells can be dissociated and placed in
a solution to test specificity. What process is this? - ANSWER ✔ Elution
29.A person who is said to be a secretor is an individual that has the Se allele
and expresses the soluble form of which antigen in their secretions? -
ANSWER ✔ H
TECHNICIANS) EXAM STUDY GUIDE
2026/2027 COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH
VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS ||
100% GUARANTEED PASS
<NEWEST VERSION>
1. Beginning with the moment the specimen is collected and transported to the
laboratory, to the analysis itself and the reporting of the results, must be
documented by a process known as - ANSWER ✔ Chain of custody.
2. A process that monitors the accuracy and reproducibility of results through
the use of control specimens. - ANSWER ✔ Quality control
3. Describes how close a test result is to the true value. - ANSWER ✔
Accuracy
4. The comparison of an instrument measurement or reading to a known
physical constant. - ANSWER ✔ Calibration
5. What category of bioterrorism agents has the following characteristics?
These agents have the third-highest priority and include emerging pathogens
that could be engineered for mass dissemination in the future because of
availability, ease of production and dissemination? - ANSWER ✔ Category
C
,6. Agents anthrax, botulism, plague, smallpox, tularemia, filoviruses, and
arenaviruses are classified as - ANSWER ✔ Category A.
7. What regulation that became law in 1992, requires that laboratories develop,
implement, and comply with a plan that ensures the protective safety of
laboratory staff to potential infectious blood-borne pathogens and manage
and handle medical waste in a safe and effective manner? - ANSWER ✔
Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens
8. Class C fire extinguishers are used for - ANSWER ✔ Electric equipment.
9. Agents brucellosis, epsilon toxin, food contaminants, glanders, melioidosis,
psittacosis, Q fever, and ricin toxin are classified as - ANSWER ✔ Category
B.
10.Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs) are now called: - ANSWER ✔ Safety
Data Sheets
11.What are defined as antibodies that are stimulated by one antigen and react
with an entirely unrelated surface antigen present on cells from different
mammalian species? - ANSWER ✔ Heterophil antibodies
12.If the antibody directed toward the agent being assayed is fixed firmly to a
solid matrix, either to the outside of a spherical plastic or metal bead or some
other solid matrix, the system is called - ANSWER ✔ Solid-phase
immunosorbent assay (SPIA).
13.What molecular technique can determine single-base mutations that include
sickle cell anemia and hemophilia A? - ANSWER ✔ Southern blot
,14.What is the widely used nontreponemal serological test? - ANSWER ✔
Rapid plasma regain (RPR)
15.What is the technique that uses a conjugated antibody to detect antigen-
antibody reactions that can be seen with a fluorescent microscope? -
ANSWER ✔ . Direct immunofluorescent assay
16.What is based on the reaction between patient antibodies in the serum,
known as the rheumatoid factor (RF), and an antigen derived from human
gamma globulin (IgG)? - ANSWER ✔ Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
agglutination test
17.What is the term applied to aggregation of particulate test antigens? -
ANSWER ✔ Agglutination
18.What is the term used to describe the aggregation of soluble test antigens? -
ANSWER ✔ Precipitation
19.What is influenced by molecular size, foreignness, shape of the molecule,
and chemical composition? - ANSWER ✔ Antigenicity
20.What is the source of antigen for performing the forward group ABO/D
typing? - ANSWER ✔ Patient cells
21.If you mix an unknown antigen (patient red cell) with a known antibody
(Anti-A) and get visible agglutination, which unknown antigen is detected? -
ANSWER ✔ A
, 22.The antiglobulin test is important because it detects what antibodies that
have attached to red cells either in vivo or in vitro but do not demonstrate
visible agglutination in testing? - ANSWER ✔ IgG
23.One method to avoid reactivity with a cold antibody is - ANSWER ✔
perform a pre-warm technique.
24.During a major side crossmatch compatibility for packed red blood cells,
what is used for testing? - ANSWER ✔ Patient serum with donor cells
25.If during an immediate spin crossmatch, if the results are incompatible what
is likely the cause? - ANSWER ✔ Patient identification error
26.The immune serum globulin that is given to D negative pregnant mothers is
to prevent production of which antibody following delivery? - ANSWER ✔
Anti-D
27.What is the maximum amount of fetomaternal hemorrhage (FMH) D
positive fetal red cells a women is allowed to lose for one dose of RhIG? -
ANSWER ✔ 30 mL
28.IgG antibody complexes on red blood cells can be dissociated and placed in
a solution to test specificity. What process is this? - ANSWER ✔ Elution
29.A person who is said to be a secretor is an individual that has the Se allele
and expresses the soluble form of which antigen in their secretions? -
ANSWER ✔ H
