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HESI Pharmacology Practice Quiz TEST FINAL EXAM AND
PRACTICE EXAM 20262027 BANK 2 VERSIONS QUESTIONS
WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM QUESTIONS
WILL COME FROM HERE (100% CORRECT ANSWERS A+
GRADED
A client with Paget's disease is started on calcitonin 500 mcg
subcutaneously daily. During the initial treatment, which is the priority
nursing action?
A. Assess the injection site for inflammation.
B. Evaluate the client's level of pain.
C. Monitor the client's alkaline phosphatase levels.
D. Observe the client for signs of hypersensitivity. - ANSWER--D.
Observe the client for signs of hypersensitivity.
Rationale:
Calcitonin is given to a client with Paget's disease to lower serum
calcium levels. The nurse's highest priority is to observe for signs of
hypersensitivity, such as skin rash, hives, or anaphylaxis. Upon initiation
of treatment, emergency equipment should be readily available.
A client receives a new prescription for an angiotensin-converting
enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Which client history contraindicates its use?
A. Asthma.
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B. Heart failure.
C. Renal artery stenosis.
D. Coronary artery disease. - ANSWER--C. Renal artery stenosis.
Rationale:
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors can cause severe renal
insufficiency in clients with bilateral renal artery stenosis or stenosis in
the artery to a single remaining kidney.
A client with chronic schizophrenia illness is admitted after taking
risperidone 10 mg/day for three months. The nurse implements a daily
assessment using the "Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale" (AIMS).
Which findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
A. Cogwheel rigidity.
B. Drowsiness and dizziness.
C. Tremors and muscle twitching.
D. Dry mouth, constipation, and blurred vision. - ANSWER--C. Tremors
and muscle twitching.
Rationale:
For a client with chronic mental illness, evidence-based
pharmacological guidelines recommend first-line treatment using an
atypical antipsychotic, such as risperidone, which can cause
extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) at dosages above 10 mg/day. The AIMS
criteria measures tardive dyskinesia movements, such as facial, oral,
tongue, teeth, and other akinesias of the trunk and extremity, such as
tremors and muscle twitching, which should be reported.
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A client receives a new prescription for pentazocine, a mixed opioid
agonist-antagonist after an opioid agonist is discontinued. Which is the
advantage for the client when the new prescription is implemented?
A. Tolerance does not occur.
B. Less agitation is experienced.
C. The analgesic ceiling is higher.
D. Used to decrease substance use disorder. - ANSWER--D. Used to
decrease substance use disorder.
Rationale:
Mixed agonist-antagonists bind as an agonist at the Kappa receptor and
as antagonists or partial agonists on the mu receptor, which decreases
the likelihood of substance use disorder more than opioid agonists that
are pure mu agonists.
An emergency department triage nurse is interviewing a female client
who has a history of epilepsy with tonic-clonic seizures controlled by
phenytoin. Which information is most significant in planning this
client's care?
A. She has missed 2 menstrual periods.
B. She has had no dental care for several years.
C. She ran out of her medication 4 days ago.
D. She has smoked 3 packs of cigarettes a day for 10 years. - ANSWER--
C. She ran out of her medication 4 days ago.
Rationale:
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Abruptly stopping anticonvulsant medications can precipitate seizures
or the development of status epilepticus. Immediate seizure
precautions and medication administration are necessary.
While reviewing the client's electronic medical record (EMR), the nurse
assesses a client who is at risk for a possible interaction with an over-
the-counter (OTC) decongestant. Which client health history should the
nurse report to the healthcare provider concerning the OTC
medication? (Select all that apply).
A. Type I diabetes mellitus (DM).
B. Closed angle glaucoma.
C. Chronic hypertension.
D. Rheumatoid arthritis.
E. Crohn's disease. - ANSWER--B. Closed angle glaucoma.
C. Chronic hypertension.
Rationale:
OTC decongestants can increase intra-ocular pressure and should be
avoided in clients with closed-angle glaucoma. Decongestants can also
increase the heart rate and elevate blood pressure which can impact
the client's management of chronic hypertension.
A client who is receiving chemotherapy is prescribed ondansetron.
Which side effect should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A. Headache.
B. Dry mouth.
HESI Pharmacology Practice Quiz TEST FINAL EXAM AND
PRACTICE EXAM 20262027 BANK 2 VERSIONS QUESTIONS
WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM QUESTIONS
WILL COME FROM HERE (100% CORRECT ANSWERS A+
GRADED
A client with Paget's disease is started on calcitonin 500 mcg
subcutaneously daily. During the initial treatment, which is the priority
nursing action?
A. Assess the injection site for inflammation.
B. Evaluate the client's level of pain.
C. Monitor the client's alkaline phosphatase levels.
D. Observe the client for signs of hypersensitivity. - ANSWER--D.
Observe the client for signs of hypersensitivity.
Rationale:
Calcitonin is given to a client with Paget's disease to lower serum
calcium levels. The nurse's highest priority is to observe for signs of
hypersensitivity, such as skin rash, hives, or anaphylaxis. Upon initiation
of treatment, emergency equipment should be readily available.
A client receives a new prescription for an angiotensin-converting
enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Which client history contraindicates its use?
A. Asthma.
,2|Page
B. Heart failure.
C. Renal artery stenosis.
D. Coronary artery disease. - ANSWER--C. Renal artery stenosis.
Rationale:
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors can cause severe renal
insufficiency in clients with bilateral renal artery stenosis or stenosis in
the artery to a single remaining kidney.
A client with chronic schizophrenia illness is admitted after taking
risperidone 10 mg/day for three months. The nurse implements a daily
assessment using the "Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale" (AIMS).
Which findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
A. Cogwheel rigidity.
B. Drowsiness and dizziness.
C. Tremors and muscle twitching.
D. Dry mouth, constipation, and blurred vision. - ANSWER--C. Tremors
and muscle twitching.
Rationale:
For a client with chronic mental illness, evidence-based
pharmacological guidelines recommend first-line treatment using an
atypical antipsychotic, such as risperidone, which can cause
extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) at dosages above 10 mg/day. The AIMS
criteria measures tardive dyskinesia movements, such as facial, oral,
tongue, teeth, and other akinesias of the trunk and extremity, such as
tremors and muscle twitching, which should be reported.
,3|Page
A client receives a new prescription for pentazocine, a mixed opioid
agonist-antagonist after an opioid agonist is discontinued. Which is the
advantage for the client when the new prescription is implemented?
A. Tolerance does not occur.
B. Less agitation is experienced.
C. The analgesic ceiling is higher.
D. Used to decrease substance use disorder. - ANSWER--D. Used to
decrease substance use disorder.
Rationale:
Mixed agonist-antagonists bind as an agonist at the Kappa receptor and
as antagonists or partial agonists on the mu receptor, which decreases
the likelihood of substance use disorder more than opioid agonists that
are pure mu agonists.
An emergency department triage nurse is interviewing a female client
who has a history of epilepsy with tonic-clonic seizures controlled by
phenytoin. Which information is most significant in planning this
client's care?
A. She has missed 2 menstrual periods.
B. She has had no dental care for several years.
C. She ran out of her medication 4 days ago.
D. She has smoked 3 packs of cigarettes a day for 10 years. - ANSWER--
C. She ran out of her medication 4 days ago.
Rationale:
, 4|Page
Abruptly stopping anticonvulsant medications can precipitate seizures
or the development of status epilepticus. Immediate seizure
precautions and medication administration are necessary.
While reviewing the client's electronic medical record (EMR), the nurse
assesses a client who is at risk for a possible interaction with an over-
the-counter (OTC) decongestant. Which client health history should the
nurse report to the healthcare provider concerning the OTC
medication? (Select all that apply).
A. Type I diabetes mellitus (DM).
B. Closed angle glaucoma.
C. Chronic hypertension.
D. Rheumatoid arthritis.
E. Crohn's disease. - ANSWER--B. Closed angle glaucoma.
C. Chronic hypertension.
Rationale:
OTC decongestants can increase intra-ocular pressure and should be
avoided in clients with closed-angle glaucoma. Decongestants can also
increase the heart rate and elevate blood pressure which can impact
the client's management of chronic hypertension.
A client who is receiving chemotherapy is prescribed ondansetron.
Which side effect should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A. Headache.
B. Dry mouth.
