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A 14-year-old boy presents complaining of intense pruritus in his groin, axillae,
and between his fingers after returning home from summer camp 1 week ago. He
reports several other campers had similar symptoms. On exam, you note
excoriations in the inguinal region and axillae surrounding scattered,
erythematous papules. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Ketoconazole
Lindane
Permethrin
Prednisone
Correct Answer ( C )
Explanation:
This patient has scabies; a pruritic dermatitis caused by cutaneous infection with the
mite Sarcoptes scabei, var hominis. Scabies is spread by skin-to-skin contact and
should be considered in patients with generalized pruritus, especially when exposure to
others with similar symptoms is reported. The rash of scabies involves papules, which
are often excoriated. Burrows are pathognomonic but not uniformly present. Unless
previously infected, pruritus generally takes 3-6 weeks to develop because symptoms
are due to delayed (Type IV) sensitivity reaction. The pruritus is classically worse at
night and affects the web spaces of the fingers, flexor aspect of the wrists, axillae, groin,
nipples, and the periumbilical region. Except in cases involving an immunocompromised
host, the scalp and face are generally spared. Diagnosis is clinical but can be confirmed
by placing scrapings collected with a #15 blade scalpel in mineral oil for microscopic
examination. The treatment of choice for primary scabies infection is the application of
topical scabicidal agents, with repeat application in 7 days. The treatment of choice is
permethrin 5% lotion. Individuals affected by scabies should avoid skin-to-skin contact
with others. Patients with typical scabies may return to school or work 24 hours after the
first treatment.
A 14-year-old boy presents complaining of intense pruritus in his groin, axillae,
and between his fingers after returning home from summer camp 1 week ago. He
,reports several other campers had similar symptoms. On exam, you note
excoriations in the inguinal region and axillae surrounding scattered,
erythematous papules. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Ketoconazole
Lindane
Permethrin
Prednisone
Correct Answer ( C )
Explanation:
This patient has scabies; a pruritic dermatitis caused by cutaneous infection with the
mite Sarcoptes scabei, var hominis. Scabies is spread by skin-to-skin contact and
should be considered in patients with generalized pruritus, especially when exposure to
others with similar symptoms is reported. The rash of scabies involves papules, which
are often excoriated. Burrows are pathognomonic but not uniformly present. Unless
previously infected, pruritus generally takes 3-6 weeks to develop because symptoms
are due to delayed (Type IV) sensitivity reaction. The pruritus is classically worse at
night and affects the web spaces of the fingers, flexor aspect of the wrists, axillae, groin,
nipples, and the periumbilical region. Except in cases involving an immunocompromised
host, the scalp and face are generally spared. Diagnosis is clinical but can be confirmed
by placing scrapings collected with a #15 blade scalpel in mineral oil for microscopic
examination. The treatment of choice for primary scabies infection is the application of
topical scabicidal agents, with repeat application in 7 days. The treatment of choice is
permethrin 5% lotion. Individuals affected by scabies should avoid skin-to-skin contact
with others. Patients with typical scabies may return to school or work 24 hours after the
first treatment.
Should family members of an infected individual also be treated for scabies?
Yes, family members and sexual contacts.
Should family members of an infected individual also be treated for scabies?
Yes, family members and sexual contacts.
Scabies
Sarcoptes scabiei
Pruritic rash worse at night
Linear burrows
Interdigital spaces of hands/feet, penis, breasts
Permethrin (first line)
Ivermectin
**head and back are sparred
(head involved in children)
Scabies
Sarcoptes scabiei
Pruritic rash worse at night
Linear burrows
Interdigital spaces of hands/feet, penis, breasts
Permethrin (first line)
, Ivermectin
**head and back are sparred
(head involved in children)
An 18-month-old boy presents to the emergency department with worsening
shortness of breath. The parents report he has had a cough, runny nose, and
fussiness for the past five days. On exam, the patient demonstrates subcostal
retractions, tachypnea, and diffuse wheezing. The patient is given an albuterol
nebulizer treatment without any improvement of his wheezing. Chest X-ray does
not show any abnormality. Which of the following organisms is the most likely
cause of his symptoms?
Bordetella pertussis
Haemophilus influenzae
Parainfluenza virus
Respiratory syncytial virus
Correct Answer ( D )
Explanation:
The patient has bronchiolitis, which is the most common lower respiratory tract infection
in patients less than two years of age. It remains the leading cause for hospitalization in
infants under one year of age. Bronchiolitis is most commonly caused by respiratory
syncytial virus (RSV), but may be caused by other viral agents. Bronchiolitis is
inflammation of the lower respiratory tract, which involves edema, epithelial cell
necrosis, bronchospasm, and increased mucus production. The resultant lower airway
obstruction causes increased work of breathing and wheezing. Bronchiolitis is a clinical
diagnosis based on age under two years old, rhinorrhea, tachypnea, and wheezing.
Unlike asthma or reactive airway disease, there is often no significant improvement with
albuterol. There is often a history of several days of upper respiratory symptoms, such
as rhinorrhea, mild cough, and mild fever. Rapid antigen tests, blood work, and
radiographs are not usually needed. Radiographs may demonstrate hyperinflation and
atelectasis, but do not show any focal infiltrates like with pneumonia. Bronchiolitis is
usually self-limited, with respiratory status typically improving over 2-5 days.
Management involves supportive care.
An 18-month-old boy presents to the emergency department with worsening
shortness of breath. The parents report he has had a cough, runny nose, and
fussiness for the past five days. On exam, the patient demonstrates subcostal
retractions, tachypnea, and diffuse wheezing. The patient is given an albuterol
nebulizer treatment without any improvement of his wheezing. Chest X-ray does
not show any abnormality. Which of the following organisms is the most likely
cause of his symptoms?
Bordetella pertussis
Haemophilus influenzae
Parainfluenza virus
Respiratory syncytial virus
Correct Answer ( D )
Explanation: