MDMP Continuous Professional Examination With Correct Answers (2026/2027)

MDMP Continuous Professional Examination
With Correct Answers (2026/2027)
1. During Step 1: Receipt of Mission, the commander issues the first Warning Order (WARNO).
What is the primary purpose of this specific output?
A) To finalize the detailed tactical plan.
B) To alert subordinate units and begin parallel planning.
C) To approve the final Course of Action (COA).
D) To conduct a formal rehearsal of the operation.
Correct Answer: B

2. In Step 2: Mission Analysis, the staff identifies "Specified Tasks." How do these differ from
"Implied Tasks"?
A) Specified tasks are derived from the mission’s constraints.
B) Specified tasks are explicitly stated in the higher headquarters’ order.
C) Implied tasks are always more important than specified tasks.
D) Specified tasks are only performed by the Commander.
Correct Answer: B

3. During Mission Analysis, the staff develops CCIR (Commander’s Critical Information
Requirements). Which of the following are the two sub-components of CCIR?
A) Essential Elements of Friendly Information (EEFI) and Constraints.
B) Priority Intelligence Requirements (PIR) and Friendly Force Information Requirements
(FFIR).
C) Mission Statement and Commander's Intent.
D) Risk Assessment and Time Management.
Correct Answer: B

4. In Step 3: Course of Action (COA) Development, the staff applies "FASDC" criteria. What does
the "S" in FASDC stand for to ensure a plan is viable regarding resources?
A) Speed: The plan must be the fastest possible.
B) Suitability: The COA must accomplish the mission within the intent.
C) Simplicity: The plan must be easy to explain.
D) Strategy: The plan must align with national goals.
Correct Answer: B

5. During Step 4: COA Analysis (War-Gaming), which technique is most appropriate for a linear
operation involving a deep, close, and rear area?
A) Belt Technique.
B) Avenue-in-Depth Technique.
C) Box Technique.
D) Brainstorming Technique.
Correct Answer: A

6. The War-Gaming process follows a specific cycle to ensure objective analysis. What is the
correct sequence of this cycle?
A) Action, Counteraction, Reaction.
B) Action, Reaction, Counteraction.
C) Plan, Prepare, Execute.

, D) Movement, Maneuver, Fire.
Correct Answer: B

7. In Step 5: COA Comparison, the staff uses a Decision Matrix to evaluate COAs. Who
ultimately determines the weight of the criteria used in this matrix?
A) The Chief of Staff (CoS).
B) The Commander.
C) The S-3 (Operations Officer).
D) The Intelligence Officer (S-2).
Correct Answer: B

8. At the end of Step 6: COA Approval, what is the immediate staff output provided to
subordinate units?
A) The Operations Order (OPORD).
B) The Final WARNO (WARNO 3).
C) The Mission Statement.
D) The Running Estimate.
Correct Answer: B

9. During Step 7: Orders Production, which paragraph of the 5-paragraph OPORD contains the
"Commander's Intent"?
A) Paragraph 1: Situation.
B) Paragraph 2: Mission.
C) Paragraph 3: Execution.
D) Paragraph 5: Command and Signal.
Correct Answer: C

10. A "Constraint" identified during Mission Analysis is a restriction placed by higher
headquarters. Which of the following is an example of a "Prohibitive Constraint"?
A) You must cross the line of departure by 0600.
B) You are not authorized to use lethal force in Zone X.
C) You must maintain a 10% reserve.
D) You must conduct a relief in place.
Correct Answer: B

11. What is the general rule for time allocation between a headquarters and its subordinates
during MDMP?
A) The 50/50 Rule.
B) The 1/3 - 2/3 Rule.
C) The 80/20 Rule.
D) The 24-hour Rule.
Correct Answer: B

12. Which staff officer is responsible for the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlefield (IPB)?
A) S-1.
B) S-2.
C) S-3.
D) S-4.
Correct Answer: B