CEA PREP 2 LATEST EXAM 2026
WITH 100 QUESTIONS AND
DETAILED CORRECT ANSWERS |
WITH RATIONALES | ALREADY
GRADED A+ | GUARANTEED
SUCCESS | CEA PREP EXAM 2026
[BRAND NEW]
A 5-year-old presents with a 5-month history of soiling his pants. The child was
successfully toilet trained at 3. What is the most likely diagnosis? - ANSWER-
Encopresis
Rationale: Encopresis is a childhood disorder characterized by the repeated passing
of stool (feces) into inappropriate places, such as clothing or the floor, typically
after the age of toilet training.
A nurse practitioner is evaluating an infant for possible colic. Which of the
following could indicate the need for a more extensive evaluation? - ANSWER-3-
oz (85 g) weight gain over the past 2 weeks
Rationale: Weight gain with colic could indicate possible impaction and additional
workup is needed.
,An 18-month-old child presents with a bulging, immobile tympanic membrane; T
= 103°F (39.4°C). Assessment also reveals a grade II/VI systolic murmur at the left
sternal border. After initiation of treatment for otitis media, the most appropriate
intervention is to: - ANSWER-reevaluate the patient in 10 days
Rationale: Heart murmurs in toddlers are relatively common and can be either
innocent (benign) or pathological (indicative of underlying heart conditions).
Proper evaluation and monitoring are essential to determine the nature of the
murmur and to ensure the child's health and development are not adversely
affected. Re-evaluating in 10 days is an appropriate next course of action.
A 7-year-old child presents with group A streptococcal infection confirmed by
throat culture. Past history includes treatment for positive streptococcal infection
with erythromycin (EryPed oral suspension) 3 weeks ago. What is the most
appropriate next intervention? - ANSWER-Treat with amoxicillin for 10 days.
Rationale: If erythromycin treatment for streptococcal infection did not work, the
next course of action typically involves switching to Amoxicillin. This is often the
first-line antibiotic for streptococcal infections.
Which of the following fine motor skills is typically expected of a 3-year-old
child? - ANSWER-Drawing a straight line
Rationale: By the age of 3, children typically develop a range of fine motor skills
that allow them to engage in more detailed and precise activities. They start to
draw basic shapes such as circles, lines, and simple pictures.
An 18-month-old child presents with a bulging, immobile tympanic membrane; T
= 103°F (39.4°C). Assessment also reveals a grade II/VI systolic murmur at the left
sternal border. After initiation of treatment for otitis media, the most appropriate
intervention is to: - ANSWER-reevaluate the patient in 10 days.
Rationale: Heart murmurs in toddlers are relatively common and can be either
innocent (benign) or pathological (indicative of underlying heart conditions).
Proper evaluation and monitoring are essential to determine the nature of the
,murmur and to ensure the child's health and development are not adversely
affected. Re-evaluating in 10 days is an appropriate next course of action.
The 16-year-old mother of a 2-month-old presents the infant, reporting that the
child is very irritable and does not feed well. During physical examination, the
child's head drops back and the child exhibits sudden flexing of the extremities. As
the flexing stops, the child cries uncontrollably. Funduscopic examination reveals
retinal hemorrhages. Which of the following diagnostic tests should be ordered? -
ANSWER-CT scan
Rationale: Retinal hemorrhages are a characteristic finding in abusive head trauma,
particularly shaking injuries. They result from the forceful shaking causing
shearing and tearing of blood vessels in the retina. A CT scan is indicated in this
case.
At what age should a child typically be able to sit without support? - ANSWER-6
months
Rationale: Typically, a child should be able to sit without support around the age of
6 to 8 months.
What is the most common trigger for asthma exacerbations in children? -
ANSWER-Seasonal allergies
Rationale: The most common cause of asthma in children is allergic asthma.
Allergic asthma is triggered by exposure to allergens that cause inflammation and
narrowing of the airways in the lungs. Common allergens that can trigger allergic
asthma include:
Dust mites: Microscopic organisms that thrive in bedding, carpets, and upholstered
furniture.
Pollen: Small particles released by trees, grasses, and weeds, particularly during
certain seasons.
Pet dander: Tiny flecks of skin shed by cats, dogs, and other furry animals.
, Mold: Fungi that can grow indoors in damp areas such as bathrooms, basements,
and kitchens.
Cockroach allergens: Substances produced by cockroaches that can trigger asthma
symptoms in sensitive individuals.
Other allergens: Certain foods, especially in young children, and environmental
factors like cigarette smoke, air pollution, and strong odors can also exacerbate
asthma symptoms.
A 13-year-old patient returns to the office complaining of intermittent headache for
the past couple of years. Which would be the most concerning symptom? -
ANSWER-Stiff neck
Rationale: Inflammation of the membranes (meninges) surrounding the brain and
spinal cord, often caused by a viral or bacterial infection. This can cause severe
headache, stiff neck, fever, and sensitivity to light.
Patients who take chronic anti-seizure medication should be notified of which risk
of abrupt change or discontinuation of these medications? - ANSWER-Decreased
seizure threshold
Rationale: Seizure threshold will decrease when medications used as prophylaxis
for seizures are reduced or abruptly halted. Therefore, more seizure activity will
get through the "threshold" and seizures will occur. Flu-like symptoms and
discontinuation syndrome are trademarks of abrupt discontinuation of anti-
depressants, not anti-epileptics.
Because of the frequency and debilitating nature of an adult patient's migraine
headaches, the NP decides to place the patient on preventive therapy. Which
medication would be most appropriate? - ANSWER-Propranolol
Rationale: Beta blockers, such as propranolol and metoprolol, work by blocking
beta-adrenergic receptors. This action leads to vasoconstriction (narrowing of
blood vessels), which can help stabilize blood flow in the brain. Migraines are
often associated with vasodilation of cranial blood vessels, and beta blockers
WITH 100 QUESTIONS AND
DETAILED CORRECT ANSWERS |
WITH RATIONALES | ALREADY
GRADED A+ | GUARANTEED
SUCCESS | CEA PREP EXAM 2026
[BRAND NEW]
A 5-year-old presents with a 5-month history of soiling his pants. The child was
successfully toilet trained at 3. What is the most likely diagnosis? - ANSWER-
Encopresis
Rationale: Encopresis is a childhood disorder characterized by the repeated passing
of stool (feces) into inappropriate places, such as clothing or the floor, typically
after the age of toilet training.
A nurse practitioner is evaluating an infant for possible colic. Which of the
following could indicate the need for a more extensive evaluation? - ANSWER-3-
oz (85 g) weight gain over the past 2 weeks
Rationale: Weight gain with colic could indicate possible impaction and additional
workup is needed.
,An 18-month-old child presents with a bulging, immobile tympanic membrane; T
= 103°F (39.4°C). Assessment also reveals a grade II/VI systolic murmur at the left
sternal border. After initiation of treatment for otitis media, the most appropriate
intervention is to: - ANSWER-reevaluate the patient in 10 days
Rationale: Heart murmurs in toddlers are relatively common and can be either
innocent (benign) or pathological (indicative of underlying heart conditions).
Proper evaluation and monitoring are essential to determine the nature of the
murmur and to ensure the child's health and development are not adversely
affected. Re-evaluating in 10 days is an appropriate next course of action.
A 7-year-old child presents with group A streptococcal infection confirmed by
throat culture. Past history includes treatment for positive streptococcal infection
with erythromycin (EryPed oral suspension) 3 weeks ago. What is the most
appropriate next intervention? - ANSWER-Treat with amoxicillin for 10 days.
Rationale: If erythromycin treatment for streptococcal infection did not work, the
next course of action typically involves switching to Amoxicillin. This is often the
first-line antibiotic for streptococcal infections.
Which of the following fine motor skills is typically expected of a 3-year-old
child? - ANSWER-Drawing a straight line
Rationale: By the age of 3, children typically develop a range of fine motor skills
that allow them to engage in more detailed and precise activities. They start to
draw basic shapes such as circles, lines, and simple pictures.
An 18-month-old child presents with a bulging, immobile tympanic membrane; T
= 103°F (39.4°C). Assessment also reveals a grade II/VI systolic murmur at the left
sternal border. After initiation of treatment for otitis media, the most appropriate
intervention is to: - ANSWER-reevaluate the patient in 10 days.
Rationale: Heart murmurs in toddlers are relatively common and can be either
innocent (benign) or pathological (indicative of underlying heart conditions).
Proper evaluation and monitoring are essential to determine the nature of the
,murmur and to ensure the child's health and development are not adversely
affected. Re-evaluating in 10 days is an appropriate next course of action.
The 16-year-old mother of a 2-month-old presents the infant, reporting that the
child is very irritable and does not feed well. During physical examination, the
child's head drops back and the child exhibits sudden flexing of the extremities. As
the flexing stops, the child cries uncontrollably. Funduscopic examination reveals
retinal hemorrhages. Which of the following diagnostic tests should be ordered? -
ANSWER-CT scan
Rationale: Retinal hemorrhages are a characteristic finding in abusive head trauma,
particularly shaking injuries. They result from the forceful shaking causing
shearing and tearing of blood vessels in the retina. A CT scan is indicated in this
case.
At what age should a child typically be able to sit without support? - ANSWER-6
months
Rationale: Typically, a child should be able to sit without support around the age of
6 to 8 months.
What is the most common trigger for asthma exacerbations in children? -
ANSWER-Seasonal allergies
Rationale: The most common cause of asthma in children is allergic asthma.
Allergic asthma is triggered by exposure to allergens that cause inflammation and
narrowing of the airways in the lungs. Common allergens that can trigger allergic
asthma include:
Dust mites: Microscopic organisms that thrive in bedding, carpets, and upholstered
furniture.
Pollen: Small particles released by trees, grasses, and weeds, particularly during
certain seasons.
Pet dander: Tiny flecks of skin shed by cats, dogs, and other furry animals.
, Mold: Fungi that can grow indoors in damp areas such as bathrooms, basements,
and kitchens.
Cockroach allergens: Substances produced by cockroaches that can trigger asthma
symptoms in sensitive individuals.
Other allergens: Certain foods, especially in young children, and environmental
factors like cigarette smoke, air pollution, and strong odors can also exacerbate
asthma symptoms.
A 13-year-old patient returns to the office complaining of intermittent headache for
the past couple of years. Which would be the most concerning symptom? -
ANSWER-Stiff neck
Rationale: Inflammation of the membranes (meninges) surrounding the brain and
spinal cord, often caused by a viral or bacterial infection. This can cause severe
headache, stiff neck, fever, and sensitivity to light.
Patients who take chronic anti-seizure medication should be notified of which risk
of abrupt change or discontinuation of these medications? - ANSWER-Decreased
seizure threshold
Rationale: Seizure threshold will decrease when medications used as prophylaxis
for seizures are reduced or abruptly halted. Therefore, more seizure activity will
get through the "threshold" and seizures will occur. Flu-like symptoms and
discontinuation syndrome are trademarks of abrupt discontinuation of anti-
depressants, not anti-epileptics.
Because of the frequency and debilitating nature of an adult patient's migraine
headaches, the NP decides to place the patient on preventive therapy. Which
medication would be most appropriate? - ANSWER-Propranolol
Rationale: Beta blockers, such as propranolol and metoprolol, work by blocking
beta-adrenergic receptors. This action leads to vasoconstriction (narrowing of
blood vessels), which can help stabilize blood flow in the brain. Migraines are
often associated with vasodilation of cranial blood vessels, and beta blockers
