CCA EXAM PREPARATION
DOMAINS 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, & 6
200+ (Fully Updated 2025-2026) Exam
Questions + Verified & Rationalized
Answers | A+ Graded
100% Guarantee Pass
This Exam contains: CCA Exam Preparation Domains
✓ 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, & 6
✓ 100% Accurate Questions and Answers
✓ 100% Guarantee Pass - Verified by Experts
✓ Each Question Includes The Correct Answer
✓ Expert-Verified
Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide Page 1 of 67
,Question 1
A patient is admitted with spotting. She had been treated two weeks previously for a miscarriage with sepsis. The
sepsis had resolved, and she is afebrile at this time. She is treated with an aspiration dilation and curettage and
products of conception are found. Which of the following should be the principal diagnosis?
a. Miscarriage
b. Complications of spontaneous abortion with sepsis
c. Sepsis
d. Spontaneous abortion with sepsis
Correct Answer
a. Miscarriage
Rationale:
The correct answer is "a. Miscarriage" because the patient is currently being treated for a miscarriage through an aspiration dilation
and curettage, which indicates that the active process of miscarriage is still occurring. The resolution of sepsis and afebrile status at
this time do not change the underlying diagnosis of miscarriage, which is the current clinical condition that requires treatment.
Question 2
If a patient has an excision of a malignant lesion of the skin, the CPT code is determined by the body area from which
the excision occurs and which of the following?
a. Length of the lesion as described in the pathology report
b. Dimension of the specimen submitted as described in the pathology report
c. Width times the length of the lesion as described in the operative report
d. Diameter of the lesion as well as the most narrow margins required to adequately excise the lesion described in the
operative report
Correct Answer
d. Diameter of the lesion as well as the most narrow margins required to adequately excise the lesion described in
the operative report
Rationale:
The correct answer is "d. Diameter of the lesion as well as the most narrow margins required to adequately excise the lesion described
in the operative report" because CPT codes for excision of skin lesions are determined by the size of the lesion and the additional
margins of normal tissue that are removed around it to ensure complete removal of the cancer. This information is typically
documented in the operative report, which provides the necessary details for accurate CPT code assignment.
Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide Page 2 of 67
,Question 3
A patient is admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and congestive heart failure. The patient subsequently
develops respiratory failure. The patient undergoes intubation with ventilator management. Which of the following
would be the correct sequencing and coding of this case?
a. Congestive heart failure, respiratory failure, ventilator management
b. Respiratory failure, intubation, ventilator management
c. Respiratory failure, congestive heart failure, intubation, ventilator management
d. Shortness of breath, congestive heart failure, respiratory failure, ventilator management
Correct Answer
a. Congestive heart failure, respiratory failure, ventilator management
Rationale:
The correct sequencing and coding is based on the chronological progression of the patient's condition, starting with the initial
diagnosis of congestive heart failure, followed by the development of respiratory failure, and then the management of respiratory
failure through intubation and ventilator management. This sequence accurately reflects the patient's clinical course, as the underlying
condition (congestive heart failure) first leads to the complication (respiratory failure), and then treatment is administered (ventilator
management).
Question 4
Which of the following is a standard terminology used to code medical procedures and services?
a. CPT
b. HCPCS
c. ICD-10-PCS
d. SNOMED CT
Correct Answer
a. CPT
Rationale:
CPT, or Current Procedural Terminology, is a standardized coding system specifically designed to classify medical, surgical, and
diagnostic procedures and services, serving as a common language for healthcare providers and payers. CPT is widely accepted and
utilized in the United States for coding purposes, making it a fundamental component of medical coding and billing processes.
Question 5
What is the correct CPT code assignment for hysteroscopy with lysis of intrauterine adhesions?
a. 58555, 58559
b. 58559
c. 58559, 58740
d. 58555, 58559, 58740
Correct Answer
b. 58559
Rationale:
The correct CPT code assignment for hysteroscopy with lysis of intrauterine adhesions is "b. 58559" because it specifically designates
the procedure for hysteroscopic lysis of intrauterine adhesions, which is the primary focus of the procedure. The other options include
additional or unrelated codes, making "b. 58559" the most accurate and specific choice.
Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide Page 3 of 67
, Question 6
What is the correct CPT code assignment for destruction of internal hemorrhoids with use of infrared coagulation?
a. 46255
b. 46930
c. 46260
d. 46945
Correct Answer
b. 46930
Rationale:
The key concept here is that infrared coagulation is a specific technique used for treating internal hemorrhoids, and the correct CPT
code assignment should reflect this. Code 46930 specifically references the use of infrared coagulation for this procedure, making it
the correct choice among the options provided.
Question 7
00Identify the diagnosis code(s) for melanoma of skin of right shoulder.
a. D03.61, C43.61
b. C43.61
c. C43.60
d. D03.61
Correct Answer
b. C43.61
Rationale:
The code "C43.61" is the correct answer because it is the specific International Classification of Diseases (ICD)-10 code for melanoma
of skin on the right shoulder, which is denoted by the '1' in the code, indicating the right side. This code is more precise than codes
like C43.60, which would indicate the melanoma is on the unspecified shoulder, and D03.61, which is a code for melanoma of
unspecified site.
Question 8
A female patient is admitted for stress incontinence. A urethral suspension to reposition the urethra via open approach
is performed. Assign the correct ICD-10-CM diagnosis and/or procedure codes.
a. N39.3, 0TJB8ZZ
b. N23, 0TSD0ZZ
c. N39.3, 0TSD0ZZ
d. R32, 0TSD4ZZ
Correct Answer
c. N39.3, 0TSD0ZZ
Rationale:
The correct ICD-10-CM procedure code is assigned based on the type of approach used for the procedure, which in this case is an
open approach. The "0TSD0ZZ" code, indicating an open approach, is correctly paired with the diagnosis code N39.3, which is the
ICD-10-CM code for stress urinary incontinence in females.
Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide Page 4 of 67
DOMAINS 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, & 6
200+ (Fully Updated 2025-2026) Exam
Questions + Verified & Rationalized
Answers | A+ Graded
100% Guarantee Pass
This Exam contains: CCA Exam Preparation Domains
✓ 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, & 6
✓ 100% Accurate Questions and Answers
✓ 100% Guarantee Pass - Verified by Experts
✓ Each Question Includes The Correct Answer
✓ Expert-Verified
Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide Page 1 of 67
,Question 1
A patient is admitted with spotting. She had been treated two weeks previously for a miscarriage with sepsis. The
sepsis had resolved, and she is afebrile at this time. She is treated with an aspiration dilation and curettage and
products of conception are found. Which of the following should be the principal diagnosis?
a. Miscarriage
b. Complications of spontaneous abortion with sepsis
c. Sepsis
d. Spontaneous abortion with sepsis
Correct Answer
a. Miscarriage
Rationale:
The correct answer is "a. Miscarriage" because the patient is currently being treated for a miscarriage through an aspiration dilation
and curettage, which indicates that the active process of miscarriage is still occurring. The resolution of sepsis and afebrile status at
this time do not change the underlying diagnosis of miscarriage, which is the current clinical condition that requires treatment.
Question 2
If a patient has an excision of a malignant lesion of the skin, the CPT code is determined by the body area from which
the excision occurs and which of the following?
a. Length of the lesion as described in the pathology report
b. Dimension of the specimen submitted as described in the pathology report
c. Width times the length of the lesion as described in the operative report
d. Diameter of the lesion as well as the most narrow margins required to adequately excise the lesion described in the
operative report
Correct Answer
d. Diameter of the lesion as well as the most narrow margins required to adequately excise the lesion described in
the operative report
Rationale:
The correct answer is "d. Diameter of the lesion as well as the most narrow margins required to adequately excise the lesion described
in the operative report" because CPT codes for excision of skin lesions are determined by the size of the lesion and the additional
margins of normal tissue that are removed around it to ensure complete removal of the cancer. This information is typically
documented in the operative report, which provides the necessary details for accurate CPT code assignment.
Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide Page 2 of 67
,Question 3
A patient is admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and congestive heart failure. The patient subsequently
develops respiratory failure. The patient undergoes intubation with ventilator management. Which of the following
would be the correct sequencing and coding of this case?
a. Congestive heart failure, respiratory failure, ventilator management
b. Respiratory failure, intubation, ventilator management
c. Respiratory failure, congestive heart failure, intubation, ventilator management
d. Shortness of breath, congestive heart failure, respiratory failure, ventilator management
Correct Answer
a. Congestive heart failure, respiratory failure, ventilator management
Rationale:
The correct sequencing and coding is based on the chronological progression of the patient's condition, starting with the initial
diagnosis of congestive heart failure, followed by the development of respiratory failure, and then the management of respiratory
failure through intubation and ventilator management. This sequence accurately reflects the patient's clinical course, as the underlying
condition (congestive heart failure) first leads to the complication (respiratory failure), and then treatment is administered (ventilator
management).
Question 4
Which of the following is a standard terminology used to code medical procedures and services?
a. CPT
b. HCPCS
c. ICD-10-PCS
d. SNOMED CT
Correct Answer
a. CPT
Rationale:
CPT, or Current Procedural Terminology, is a standardized coding system specifically designed to classify medical, surgical, and
diagnostic procedures and services, serving as a common language for healthcare providers and payers. CPT is widely accepted and
utilized in the United States for coding purposes, making it a fundamental component of medical coding and billing processes.
Question 5
What is the correct CPT code assignment for hysteroscopy with lysis of intrauterine adhesions?
a. 58555, 58559
b. 58559
c. 58559, 58740
d. 58555, 58559, 58740
Correct Answer
b. 58559
Rationale:
The correct CPT code assignment for hysteroscopy with lysis of intrauterine adhesions is "b. 58559" because it specifically designates
the procedure for hysteroscopic lysis of intrauterine adhesions, which is the primary focus of the procedure. The other options include
additional or unrelated codes, making "b. 58559" the most accurate and specific choice.
Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide Page 3 of 67
, Question 6
What is the correct CPT code assignment for destruction of internal hemorrhoids with use of infrared coagulation?
a. 46255
b. 46930
c. 46260
d. 46945
Correct Answer
b. 46930
Rationale:
The key concept here is that infrared coagulation is a specific technique used for treating internal hemorrhoids, and the correct CPT
code assignment should reflect this. Code 46930 specifically references the use of infrared coagulation for this procedure, making it
the correct choice among the options provided.
Question 7
00Identify the diagnosis code(s) for melanoma of skin of right shoulder.
a. D03.61, C43.61
b. C43.61
c. C43.60
d. D03.61
Correct Answer
b. C43.61
Rationale:
The code "C43.61" is the correct answer because it is the specific International Classification of Diseases (ICD)-10 code for melanoma
of skin on the right shoulder, which is denoted by the '1' in the code, indicating the right side. This code is more precise than codes
like C43.60, which would indicate the melanoma is on the unspecified shoulder, and D03.61, which is a code for melanoma of
unspecified site.
Question 8
A female patient is admitted for stress incontinence. A urethral suspension to reposition the urethra via open approach
is performed. Assign the correct ICD-10-CM diagnosis and/or procedure codes.
a. N39.3, 0TJB8ZZ
b. N23, 0TSD0ZZ
c. N39.3, 0TSD0ZZ
d. R32, 0TSD4ZZ
Correct Answer
c. N39.3, 0TSD0ZZ
Rationale:
The correct ICD-10-CM procedure code is assigned based on the type of approach used for the procedure, which in this case is an
open approach. The "0TSD0ZZ" code, indicating an open approach, is correctly paired with the diagnosis code N39.3, which is the
ICD-10-CM code for stress urinary incontinence in females.
Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide Page 4 of 67
