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CCT Study Guide - Fall 2026 with all Correct & 100% Verified Answers |Latest Version |Already Graded A+

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CCT Study Guide - Fall 2026 with all Correct & 100% Verified Answers |Latest Version |Already Graded A+

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CCT Study Guide - Fall 2026 with all Correct & 100%
Verified Answers |Latest Version |Already Graded A+

What is the best reason to apply capnography monitoring to your intubated and mechanically
ventilated patient prior to moving her from the hospital bed to your stretcher? ✔Correct Answer-
To make sure that the tube hasn't moved and that the patient is still receiving adequate ventilation.

An intubated patient being prepared for transport is gagging, mouthing her tube, and raising her
head off the ED bed. What should the CCT medic do? ✔Correct Answer-Contact the patient's nurse
and MD.

List the elements of assessment of the CCT patient. ✔Correct Answer-Size up, HPI, chart review,
ongoing meds, pre-transport interventions, moving tubes/lines, rechecking patency, collection
bags/suctioning, and documents.

What is the hierarchy of medical control for CCT transports? ✔Correct Answer-Sending facility,
receiving facility, then your CCT medical director. When in doubt, use the last physician to see the
patient.

How do you handle giving report when you had to change the vent settings en route? ✔Correct
Answer-Notify the receiving facility of what change you made and reason for the change, and the
subsequent patient outcome.

Recall the difference between protocols and standing orders. Can you honor a verbal order as you
are "heading out the door" with a patient? ✔Correct Answer-As long as it is the patient's sending
facility doctor giving them.

What are the requirements for Medicare reimbursement for SCT? ✔Correct Answer-The patient
must be critically ill or injured, the transport must be interfacility, and the care provided must be
beyond the scope of a paramedic.

Identify a case in which a hospital would be exempt from the requirement to provide a patient with
an appropriate screening exam and stabilizing treatment. ✔Correct Answer-The hospital does not
partake in Medicare or Medicaid.

Who is responsible for all clincial aspects of a CCT program? ✔Correct Answer-The CCT medical
director.

What makes a transfer CCT-eligible? ✔Correct Answer-Most IV meds (no antibiotics, electrolytes,
or TPN), vents, chest tubes, balloon pumps, fresh pacemakers, NICU/PICU, and emergent OB
transfers (preterm labor, preeclampsia, fetal distress).

Electrolytes like magnesium sulfate only count if they are being used as a medicine, as in correcting
an acute issue and not correcting an abnormal lab value.

TPN only counts if insulin is mixed in.

What is lobular consolidation indicative of? ✔Correct Answer-Pneumonia.

,What is a flattened diaphragm suggestive of? ✔Correct Answer-Hyper-inflated lungs (COPD,
emphysema).

What features would you note on the chest x-ray of a patient with ARDS? ✔Correct Answer-Edema
is patchy and bilateral and the film is "foggy," appearance of "ground glass."

How are different densities represented on an x-ray? ✔Correct Answer-Low density: black (air).
High density: white (bone, metal, contrast material).

What diagnosis is consistent with a "ground glass" appearance of the lungs? ✔Correct Answer-
ARDS.

What is the normal hemoglobin (HgB) range for men and women? ✔Correct Answer-Men: 13 to 18
g/dL.
Women: 12 to 16 g/dL.

A diagnostic test that is just fair at detecting disease, but has very few false positives, can be
described as having LOW SENSITIVITY and HIGH SPECIFICITY. ✔Correct Answer-High SPECIFICITY =
low false positives. High SENSITIVITY = low false negatives.

What lab should you monitor for a patient receiving heparin? What is the upper limit of this value
that would require you to decrease the dose? ✔Correct Answer-aPTT (activated partial
thromboplastin time). Normal is 25 to 40 seconds, and a critical lab is valued at > 65.

Why would a patient receive vitamin K? ✔Correct Answer-To help with blood clotting.

An 18 year old is suffering from meningococcal meningitis. You would expect his WBC differential to
display what abnormality? ✔Correct Answer-An increase in neutrophils.

What are the components of a basic metabolic panel (BMP)? ✔Correct Answer-Sodium (135 to 145
mmol/L)
Potassium (3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L)
Chloride (96 to 106 mEq/L)
Bicarbonate (21 to 28 mEq/L)
Glucose (70 to 110 mg/dL)
Creatinine (0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL)
BUN/Creatinine ratio (10 to 20:1)

BNP is a marker for what condition of the heart? ✔Correct Answer-Congestive heart failure.

What are the normal ranges of Na+ and K+? ✔Correct Answer-Sodium: 135 to 145 mmol/L.
Potassium: 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L.

What is Troponin I a marker for? ✔Correct Answer-Troponin is a test for myocardial necrosis (MI).
Normal range is 0.1 to 0.2 ng/mL.

What is the correct procedure when a transfusion ends? ✔Correct Answer-Monitor for signs of
adverse reactions.

What blood component may be ordered for the treatment of Warfarin toxicity? ✔Correct Answer-
Fresh frozen plasma.

, What is the only type of fluid that should be mixed with blood? ✔Correct Answer-Normal saline.

Know the ABO blood typing and the differences between antigens and antibodies. ✔Correct
Answer-Type A: A antigens, B antibodies.
Type B: B antigens, A antibodies.
Type AB: A and B antigens, no antibodies.
Type O: no antigens, A and B antibodies.

An antigen elicits an immune response from the body; binds to an antibody.

What is the fastest and most dangerous type of transfusion reaction? ✔Correct Answer-Hemolytic.

What is the best way to treat acidosis in a patient on a ventilator? ✔Correct Answer-Increase
respiratory rate.

What is the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve? ✔Correct Answer-A graphical representation of
how well O2 will bind to hemoglobin. A shift to the left makes it easier to bind, and a shift to the right
makes it more difficult. Higher temperatures and lower pH levels will cause a shift to the right.

Lactic acid is a unique byproduct of what type of metabolism? ✔Correct Answer-Anaerobic.

Know pH, CO2, and bicarbonate levels of an ABG, and the chemical differences of respiratory and
metabolic acidosis and alkalosis. ✔Correct Answer-pH: 7.35 to 7.45
CO2: 35 to 45 mmHg
Bicarbonate: 22 to 26 mEq/L

Respiratory acidosis results from a decrease in pH and an increase in CO2. Respiratory alkalosis
results from an increase in pH and a decrease in CO2. The metabolic side of the house may attempt
to compensate by either increasing or decreasing HCO3 levels.

Metabolic acidosis results from a decreased pH and a decrease in HCO3 levels. Metabolic alkalosis is
the opposite. The respiratory system may attempt to compensate by either increasing or decreasing
respiratory rate.

You don't have a blood gas but you did get a BMP. What element of the BMP can help you determine
acid-base status? ✔Correct Answer-Anion gap. AG = Na - (Cl + HCO3).

What is anion gap useful for detecting? ✔Correct Answer-The acid-base balance in the body. It can
help guide treatment of any electrolyte imbalances.

What are the two phases of asthma, and why is methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) not effective in
the earlier stages? ✔Correct Answer-Phase I consists of bronchoconstriction, where a beta-II
agonist (albuterol) would be indicated. Phase II consists of inflammation, where a steroid
(methylprednisolone) would be more appropriate.

An asthma patient is on a ventilator. What parameter is it most important to monitor for?
✔Correct Answer-Peak inspiratory pressure (PIP). Making sure the lungs aren't overinflated.

Where do most pulmonary emboli originate from? ✔Correct Answer-The lower extremities from
DVT.

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