NR667 EXAM TEST FNP CAPSTONE 2026
ACTUAL WITH QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ANSWERS A+
TB
,. An adult patient presents with complaints of acute-onset unilateral
right eye pain, visual changes, seeing halos around lights, abdominal
pain, and intermittent nausea. Physical findings include an
erythematous right eye without discharge, a cloudy cornea, and a
moderately dilated right pupil that is non-reactive to light. The nurse
practitioner should immediately:
apply fluorescein stain and access for injury or foreign body refer
the patient to the emergency department obtain a specimen for
culture and sensitivity of the inflamed eye apply mydriatic drops for
a funduscopic examination - ✔✔✔ Correct
Answer > refer the patient to the emergency department
. A patient is being followed for type 2 diabetes mellitus and
hypertension. He also has a diagnosis of polycythemia vera and has
regular phlebotomies for management. Which of the following
statements about this patient is correct?
The phlebotomies will improve his glycosylated hemoglobin levels
The phlebotomies will increase his blood pressure
,He should increase dietary iron supplements
He should avoid dietary iron supplements - ✔✔✔ Correct Answer > He
should avoid dietary iron supplements
. Which of the following medications is not considered part of optimal
medical therapy for a 54 year-old male patient with a diagnosis of heart
failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) with an EF of 30%, known
coronary artery disease, and normal renal function?
Aspirin
Carvedilol (Coreg)
Diltiazem (Cardizem)
Spironolactone (Aldactone) - ✔✔✔ Correct Answer > Diltiazem
(Cardizem)
. A 70-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with
sudden-onset left-sided weakness and slurred speech. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
, Stroke
Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
Myocardial infarction (MI)
Seizure - ✔✔✔ Correct Answer > Stroke
. A geriatric patient with anemia, back pain, osteoporosis, and
elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate should be evaluated for:
cauda equina syndrome. renal
dystrophy.
Paget's disease.
multiple myeloma. - ✔✔✔ Correct Answer > multiple myeloma.
. A 55 year-old female patient with no previous cardiac history and no
family history of hyperlipidemia with an acute myocardial infarction is
treated successfully with a drug-eluting stent during a recent
hospitalization. As their long-term care provider, you anticipate they
were most likely to be also started on which of the following
lipidlowering agents at discharge?
ACTUAL WITH QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ANSWERS A+
TB
,. An adult patient presents with complaints of acute-onset unilateral
right eye pain, visual changes, seeing halos around lights, abdominal
pain, and intermittent nausea. Physical findings include an
erythematous right eye without discharge, a cloudy cornea, and a
moderately dilated right pupil that is non-reactive to light. The nurse
practitioner should immediately:
apply fluorescein stain and access for injury or foreign body refer
the patient to the emergency department obtain a specimen for
culture and sensitivity of the inflamed eye apply mydriatic drops for
a funduscopic examination - ✔✔✔ Correct
Answer > refer the patient to the emergency department
. A patient is being followed for type 2 diabetes mellitus and
hypertension. He also has a diagnosis of polycythemia vera and has
regular phlebotomies for management. Which of the following
statements about this patient is correct?
The phlebotomies will improve his glycosylated hemoglobin levels
The phlebotomies will increase his blood pressure
,He should increase dietary iron supplements
He should avoid dietary iron supplements - ✔✔✔ Correct Answer > He
should avoid dietary iron supplements
. Which of the following medications is not considered part of optimal
medical therapy for a 54 year-old male patient with a diagnosis of heart
failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) with an EF of 30%, known
coronary artery disease, and normal renal function?
Aspirin
Carvedilol (Coreg)
Diltiazem (Cardizem)
Spironolactone (Aldactone) - ✔✔✔ Correct Answer > Diltiazem
(Cardizem)
. A 70-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with
sudden-onset left-sided weakness and slurred speech. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
, Stroke
Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
Myocardial infarction (MI)
Seizure - ✔✔✔ Correct Answer > Stroke
. A geriatric patient with anemia, back pain, osteoporosis, and
elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate should be evaluated for:
cauda equina syndrome. renal
dystrophy.
Paget's disease.
multiple myeloma. - ✔✔✔ Correct Answer > multiple myeloma.
. A 55 year-old female patient with no previous cardiac history and no
family history of hyperlipidemia with an acute myocardial infarction is
treated successfully with a drug-eluting stent during a recent
hospitalization. As their long-term care provider, you anticipate they
were most likely to be also started on which of the following
lipidlowering agents at discharge?
