1
INFECTIOUS DISEASE NURSING EXAM – HIV,
TB & EMERGING INFECTIONS 2026-27 JUT
RELEASED VERSION
Exam Structure
• Total Questions: 100
• Format: Multiple Choice (Single Best Answer)
• Level: University / RN–BSN / Post-RN
• Time: 120–150 minutes
Introduction
This exam evaluates the nurse’s knowledge and clinical judgment in managing infectious
diseases, focusing on:
• HIV/AIDS – transmission, antiretroviral therapy, opportunistic infections
• Tuberculosis (TB) – active vs latent TB, isolation precautions, DOT therapy
• Emerging infections – recognition, containment, nursing interventions (e.g., COVID-19,
Ebola, Zika)
• Infection control principles, patient education, and public health implications
The questions are scenario-based, priority-focused, and designed to test critical thinking in
prevention, diagnosis, treatment, and patient safety.
Question & Answer Format
• Four options (A–D)
• One best correct answer
• Each question includes rationale referencing current CDC/WHO standards and nursing
best practices
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SECTION I: HIV/AIDS MANAGEMENT (Q1–30)
Q1.
A patient newly diagnosed with HIV asks about the main goal of
antiretroviral therapy (ART). The nurse should respond:
A. Suppress viral replication and maintain immune function
B. Cure the infection completely
C. Only prevent opportunistic infections
D. Reduce fever
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: ART controls viral load, preserves CD4+ counts, and
prevents progression to AIDS; there is currently no cure.
Q2.
Which lab is most important to monitor in HIV patients to
assess immune status?
A. CD4+ T-cell count
B. Hemoglobin
C. Sodium
D. Platelets
,3
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: CD4+ count reflects immune competence and guides
prophylaxis and therapy.
Q3.
Patient with HIV has CD4+ count of 180/mm³. Which
prophylaxis is indicated?
A. TMP-SMX for Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP)
B. No prophylaxis needed
C. Iron supplements
D. Vitamin C only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: CD4+ <200 increases risk for opportunistic infections;
TMP-SMX prevents PCP.
Q4.
Patient reports nausea and fatigue while on ART. Nursing action:
A. Assess adherence, educate on side effects, and notify
provider for management
B. Stop medication
C. Ignore symptoms
D. Encourage skipping doses
, 4
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Side effects can reduce adherence; early
management improves outcomes.
Q5.
Which statement indicates correct understanding of HIV
transmission?
A. HIV is transmitted through blood, sexual contact, and
perinatal routes
B. HIV is spread by casual contact
C. HIV is airborne
D. HIV spreads through saliva only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Blood, sexual contact, and vertical transmission are
primary routes; casual contact is not a risk.
Q6.
Patient with HIV presents with oral candidiasis. Priority nursing
action:
A. Administer antifungal as prescribed, monitor for pain and
ability to eat
B. Ignore, it will resolve
INFECTIOUS DISEASE NURSING EXAM – HIV,
TB & EMERGING INFECTIONS 2026-27 JUT
RELEASED VERSION
Exam Structure
• Total Questions: 100
• Format: Multiple Choice (Single Best Answer)
• Level: University / RN–BSN / Post-RN
• Time: 120–150 minutes
Introduction
This exam evaluates the nurse’s knowledge and clinical judgment in managing infectious
diseases, focusing on:
• HIV/AIDS – transmission, antiretroviral therapy, opportunistic infections
• Tuberculosis (TB) – active vs latent TB, isolation precautions, DOT therapy
• Emerging infections – recognition, containment, nursing interventions (e.g., COVID-19,
Ebola, Zika)
• Infection control principles, patient education, and public health implications
The questions are scenario-based, priority-focused, and designed to test critical thinking in
prevention, diagnosis, treatment, and patient safety.
Question & Answer Format
• Four options (A–D)
• One best correct answer
• Each question includes rationale referencing current CDC/WHO standards and nursing
best practices
,2
SECTION I: HIV/AIDS MANAGEMENT (Q1–30)
Q1.
A patient newly diagnosed with HIV asks about the main goal of
antiretroviral therapy (ART). The nurse should respond:
A. Suppress viral replication and maintain immune function
B. Cure the infection completely
C. Only prevent opportunistic infections
D. Reduce fever
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: ART controls viral load, preserves CD4+ counts, and
prevents progression to AIDS; there is currently no cure.
Q2.
Which lab is most important to monitor in HIV patients to
assess immune status?
A. CD4+ T-cell count
B. Hemoglobin
C. Sodium
D. Platelets
,3
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: CD4+ count reflects immune competence and guides
prophylaxis and therapy.
Q3.
Patient with HIV has CD4+ count of 180/mm³. Which
prophylaxis is indicated?
A. TMP-SMX for Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP)
B. No prophylaxis needed
C. Iron supplements
D. Vitamin C only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: CD4+ <200 increases risk for opportunistic infections;
TMP-SMX prevents PCP.
Q4.
Patient reports nausea and fatigue while on ART. Nursing action:
A. Assess adherence, educate on side effects, and notify
provider for management
B. Stop medication
C. Ignore symptoms
D. Encourage skipping doses
, 4
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Side effects can reduce adherence; early
management improves outcomes.
Q5.
Which statement indicates correct understanding of HIV
transmission?
A. HIV is transmitted through blood, sexual contact, and
perinatal routes
B. HIV is spread by casual contact
C. HIV is airborne
D. HIV spreads through saliva only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Blood, sexual contact, and vertical transmission are
primary routes; casual contact is not a risk.
Q6.
Patient with HIV presents with oral candidiasis. Priority nursing
action:
A. Administer antifungal as prescribed, monitor for pain and
ability to eat
B. Ignore, it will resolve
