CRITICAL CARE HESI NEWEST 2026 ACTUAL EXAM
TEST BANK| 2 VERSIONS (VERSION A & B) WITH
COMPLETE 450 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+| CRITICAL CARE
HESI EXAM PREP (MOST RECENT!!)
CRITICAL CARE HESI VERSION A.
A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with hematemesis related
to esophageal varices. Which assessment finding should the nurse
identify that is the result of an estimated blood loss at 35% of total blood
volume?
A) Absent bowel sounds.
B) Coma.
C) Anuria.
D) Abdominal pain. -Correct Answer- A) Absent bowel sounds.
Massive blood loss redirects a significant amount of blood flow to vital
organs. A client who has lost 30% to 40% of the total blood volume will
exhibit absent bowel sounds, lethargy, and increased serum potassium.
The nurse is planning care for a client admitted to the intensive care unit
with acute infected necrotizing pancreatitis. Which diagnostic procedure
should the nurse prepare the client to expect the healthcare provider to
prescribe?
A) Contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT).
pg. 1
,B) Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP).
C) Abdominal radiography.
D) Abdominal ultrasound. -Correct Answer- A)
Contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) is the imaging modality
of choice to evaluate peripancreatic necrosis.
A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with hepatic
encephalopathy secondary to cirrhosis. The client is lethargic and
confused. The healthcare provider prescribes lactulose. Which finding
indicates a positive response to the medication?
A) An increase in alertness and orientation.
B) Serum ammonia level 80 mcg/dL (47 mol/L).
C) Multiple diarrheal stools per day.
D) Decreased jaundice of skin and sclera. -Correct Answer- A)
Hepatic dysfunction causes an elevated ammonia levels that cause
mental status changes in clients with hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose,
an osmotic laxative and colonic acidifier, pulls ammonia from the serum
into the gut to facilitate ammonia elimination. An improved mental state
indicates a positive response to lactulose.
The nurse is caring for a client who is admitted to the critical care unit
with a closed head injury sustained in a motor vehicle collision. Which
finding in the client's vital sign flowsheet indicates an increase in
intracranial pressure?
A) Heart rate 45 beats per minute and blood pressure 180/80 mm Hg.
pg. 2
,B) Heart rate 70 beats per minute and blood pressure 140/100 mm Hg.
C) Heart rate 90 beats per minute and blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg.
D) Heart rate 110 beats per minute and blood pressure 80/40 mm Hg -
Correct Answer- A)
A hallmark sign of increased intracranial pressure includes a trending of
heart rate and blood pressures changes to bradycardia and systolic
hypertension with a widening pulse pressure, which is known as
Cushing's triad. The client is manifesting Cushing's triad with a heart
rate of 45 beats/minute and a systolic blood pressure of 180 with a
widened pulse pressure of 100.
The post anesthesia care unit (PACU) nurse transfers a client to the
intensive care unit (ICU) and reports that the client received morphine
sulfate 4 mg IV for pain of 8 on a scale of 1 to 10. On assessment in the
ICU, the nurse observes that the client is somnolent, difficult to arouse,
and has a respiratory rate is 6 breaths/minute. Which prescription should
the nurse implement?
A) Naloxone.
B) Morphine sulfate.
C) Albuterol.
D) Fentanyl. -Correct Answer- A) Naloxone.
The client is experiencing respiratory depression from the morphine. The
nurse should administer naloxone, the antidote for narcotic overdose.
A client arrives in the emergency department with a gunshot wound to
the chest. The client is short of breath, has tracheal deviation to the
pg. 3
, unaffected side of the chest, and an O2 saturation of 84%. Which
pathophysiologic process is precipitating the client's findings?
A) Tension pneumothorax.
B) Flail chest.
C) Pulmonary contusion.
D) Acute respiratory distress syndrome -Correct Answer- A)
A gunshot wound that penetrates the chest wall allows air to enter the
pleural space causing respiratory distress due to a tension pneumothorax
that shifts the trachea from midline and to the unaffected side of the
chest.
The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the critical care unit after
sustaining injuries in a motor vehicle collision. Which admission
assessment finding indicative of a possible splenic rupture should the
nurse report to the healthcare provider?
A) Positive Kehr's sign.
B) Positive Grey Turner's sign.
C) Pain at McBurney's point.
D) Rebound tenderness and rigidity. -Correct Answer- A)
Signs of splenic rupture include referred pain to the left shoulder, which
is known as a positive Kehr's sign, which the nurse should report
immediately.
The nurse is caring for a client with severe sepsis related to a ruptured
appendix. The client is diaphoretic and reports lower extremity spasms.
pg. 4
TEST BANK| 2 VERSIONS (VERSION A & B) WITH
COMPLETE 450 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+| CRITICAL CARE
HESI EXAM PREP (MOST RECENT!!)
CRITICAL CARE HESI VERSION A.
A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with hematemesis related
to esophageal varices. Which assessment finding should the nurse
identify that is the result of an estimated blood loss at 35% of total blood
volume?
A) Absent bowel sounds.
B) Coma.
C) Anuria.
D) Abdominal pain. -Correct Answer- A) Absent bowel sounds.
Massive blood loss redirects a significant amount of blood flow to vital
organs. A client who has lost 30% to 40% of the total blood volume will
exhibit absent bowel sounds, lethargy, and increased serum potassium.
The nurse is planning care for a client admitted to the intensive care unit
with acute infected necrotizing pancreatitis. Which diagnostic procedure
should the nurse prepare the client to expect the healthcare provider to
prescribe?
A) Contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT).
pg. 1
,B) Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP).
C) Abdominal radiography.
D) Abdominal ultrasound. -Correct Answer- A)
Contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) is the imaging modality
of choice to evaluate peripancreatic necrosis.
A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with hepatic
encephalopathy secondary to cirrhosis. The client is lethargic and
confused. The healthcare provider prescribes lactulose. Which finding
indicates a positive response to the medication?
A) An increase in alertness and orientation.
B) Serum ammonia level 80 mcg/dL (47 mol/L).
C) Multiple diarrheal stools per day.
D) Decreased jaundice of skin and sclera. -Correct Answer- A)
Hepatic dysfunction causes an elevated ammonia levels that cause
mental status changes in clients with hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose,
an osmotic laxative and colonic acidifier, pulls ammonia from the serum
into the gut to facilitate ammonia elimination. An improved mental state
indicates a positive response to lactulose.
The nurse is caring for a client who is admitted to the critical care unit
with a closed head injury sustained in a motor vehicle collision. Which
finding in the client's vital sign flowsheet indicates an increase in
intracranial pressure?
A) Heart rate 45 beats per minute and blood pressure 180/80 mm Hg.
pg. 2
,B) Heart rate 70 beats per minute and blood pressure 140/100 mm Hg.
C) Heart rate 90 beats per minute and blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg.
D) Heart rate 110 beats per minute and blood pressure 80/40 mm Hg -
Correct Answer- A)
A hallmark sign of increased intracranial pressure includes a trending of
heart rate and blood pressures changes to bradycardia and systolic
hypertension with a widening pulse pressure, which is known as
Cushing's triad. The client is manifesting Cushing's triad with a heart
rate of 45 beats/minute and a systolic blood pressure of 180 with a
widened pulse pressure of 100.
The post anesthesia care unit (PACU) nurse transfers a client to the
intensive care unit (ICU) and reports that the client received morphine
sulfate 4 mg IV for pain of 8 on a scale of 1 to 10. On assessment in the
ICU, the nurse observes that the client is somnolent, difficult to arouse,
and has a respiratory rate is 6 breaths/minute. Which prescription should
the nurse implement?
A) Naloxone.
B) Morphine sulfate.
C) Albuterol.
D) Fentanyl. -Correct Answer- A) Naloxone.
The client is experiencing respiratory depression from the morphine. The
nurse should administer naloxone, the antidote for narcotic overdose.
A client arrives in the emergency department with a gunshot wound to
the chest. The client is short of breath, has tracheal deviation to the
pg. 3
, unaffected side of the chest, and an O2 saturation of 84%. Which
pathophysiologic process is precipitating the client's findings?
A) Tension pneumothorax.
B) Flail chest.
C) Pulmonary contusion.
D) Acute respiratory distress syndrome -Correct Answer- A)
A gunshot wound that penetrates the chest wall allows air to enter the
pleural space causing respiratory distress due to a tension pneumothorax
that shifts the trachea from midline and to the unaffected side of the
chest.
The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the critical care unit after
sustaining injuries in a motor vehicle collision. Which admission
assessment finding indicative of a possible splenic rupture should the
nurse report to the healthcare provider?
A) Positive Kehr's sign.
B) Positive Grey Turner's sign.
C) Pain at McBurney's point.
D) Rebound tenderness and rigidity. -Correct Answer- A)
Signs of splenic rupture include referred pain to the left shoulder, which
is known as a positive Kehr's sign, which the nurse should report
immediately.
The nurse is caring for a client with severe sepsis related to a ruptured
appendix. The client is diaphoretic and reports lower extremity spasms.
pg. 4
