Management in Acute Care Review || Most Recent
Exam 2026-2027 Actual Complete Real Exam
Questions And Correct Answers (Verified
Answers) Already Graded A+ |
Guaranteed Success!!
Newest Exam | Just
Released!!
A 32-year-old male with no known past medical history
presents to the clinic to establish care. He is an endurance
athlete and regularly participates in triathlons. He reports that
he has noticed shortness of breath when he walks more than a
few blocks. He denies any associated chest pain. He denies
alcohol, tobacco, or illicit drug use. He is adopted and does not
know his family medical history. He does not take any
medications other than multivitamins occasionally. The vital
signs in your office are within normal limits. He has a normal
JVD, clear lungs, and a harsh crescendo-decrescendo systolic
murmur that begins slightly after S1. His ECG suggests left
ventricular hypertrophy.
Which of the following is the next step in his clinical
management? a. Start furosemide for diuresis
b. Start aspirin and Plavix
c. No further workup is warranted
d. Order an echocardiogram - ANSWER -d. Order an
echocardiogram
,A 56-year-old patient is admitted for a new diagnosis of systolic
heart failure due to dilated cardiomyopathy. The patient has a
longstanding history of heavy alcohol consumption. Which of
the following should be included in his discharge discussion?
a. Sexual activity is contraindicated
b. Restricted dietary sodium will reverse his heart dysfunction
c. Cessation of alcohol may improve his heart function
d. Aerobic exercise can be deadly and must be avoided -
ANSWER -c.
Cessation of alcohol may improve his heart function
Which of the following cardiomyopathies is likely to be
associated with a sustained PMI, a systolic murmur, and
enlargement of the intraventricular septum?
a. Dilated
b. Restricted
c. Ischemic d Hypertrophic - ANSWER -d Hypertrophic
What is high sensitivity troponin and when to use? - ANSWER -
first line test for
cardiac cell
damage
used for initial
injury
A 67-year-old patient with a history of bladder cancer presents
to the emergency department with acute dyspnea. Vital signs
,are T 37.9°C, HR 110, RR 24, BP 89/40, and SaO2 90 %. On
physical exam, he is alert and oriented but appears anxious
and has an increased work of breathing. Lung sounds and
heart sounds are normal. There are no other abnormal physical
exam findings except a swollen and tender left lower extremity.
EKG and chest x-ray are normal. Labs and ABG results are still
pending. The AGACNP strongly suspects
acute pulmonary embolism. Which of the following is the next
step in treating
this
patient?
a. Order bilateral lower extremity venous
doppler ultrasound
b. Initiate rapid sequence intubation (RSI) and
mechanical ventilation
c. Order a non-contrast
chest CT
d. Provide oxygen, IV fluids, and consider IV vasopressors
- ANSWER -d.
Provide oxygen, IV fluids, and consider IV
vasopressors
A 56-year-old man presented to the emergency room three
hours ago for acute onset of dyspnea. CT pulmonary
angiogram performed upon admission showed a large, central
pulmonary embolism. Treatment was initiated with
subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) and he
was transferred to the ICU for continued monitoring. The nurse
calls to report that the patient now has a blood pressure of
, 78/50 mmHg. His pulse is 120, respiratory rate is 28, and
oxygen saturation is 92% on 2 L of oxygen via nasal cannula.
His lungs are clear on auscultation but there is a new grade 2/6
systolic murmur above the left lower sternal border noted. A
1000 mL fluid bolus of LR is administered and the patient's BP
initially improves to 100/65. Which of the following is the next
step in the clinical management of this patient? a. Continue low
molecular weight heparin
b. Switch the patient to a vitamin K antagonists (coumadin)
c. Contact t - ANSWER -c. Contact the interventional radiologist
for catheter delivered thrombolytic therapy
A 54-year-old woman was admitted with COVID-19
pneumonia, she has no prior medical history or
comorbidities. Which of the following is recommended for
hospitalized VTE non-surgical patients? a. Low molecular
weight heparin (LMWH)
b. Prophylaxis is not needed because the patient is young and
has no riskfactors
c. Mechanical compression boots
d. Direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) - ANSWER -a. Low
molecular weight heparin (LMWH)
A 72-year-old male with a past history of CAD, HTN, HLD,
tobacco use, and Type 2 DM presents to the ED with
complaints of sudden onset of severe pain to his left lower leg
that started about two hours earlier. Vital signs are as follows:
BP 148/92, HR 105, T 99.1 F. Lab work is notable for lactic acid