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NUR 210 – EXAM 2: PRINCIPLES OF PHARMACOLOGY EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES GRADED A+ LATEST

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NUR 210 – EXAM 2: PRINCIPLES OF PHARMACOLOGY EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES GRADED A+ LATEST NUR 210 – EXAM 2: PRINCIPLES OF PHARMACOLOGY EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES GRADED A+ LATEST NUR 210 – EXAM 2: PRINCIPLES OF PHARMACOLOGY EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES GRADED A+ LATEST

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NUR 210 – EXAM 2: PRINCIPLES OF PHARMACOLOGY Correct Answer: C
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH Rationale: Creatinine reflects renal function and drug clearance ability.
RATIONALES GRADED A+ LATEST
4. Which outcome best indicates drug potency?
1. Which factor most directly influences drug distribution? A. Maximum effect produced
A. Gastric pH B. Dose required to produce an effect
B. Cardiac output C. Duration of action
C. Route of administration D. Safety margin
D. First-pass metabolism Correct Answer: B
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Potency reflects how much drug is needed for a response.
Rationale: Cardiac output determines how efficiently drugs are delivered to
tissues.
5. A drug that is rapidly metabolized will have:
A. Long half-life
2. A drug that produces less effect than a full agonist even at maximum dose is B. Delayed onset
a: C. Short duration
A. Antagonist D. Increased bioavailability
B. Partial agonist Correct Answer: C
C. Inverse agonist Rationale: Rapid metabolism shortens duration of action.
D. Competitive inhibitor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Partial agonists have lower efficacy than full agonists. 6. Which patient is most at risk for accumulation of fat-soluble drugs?
A. Underweight adult
B. Older adult
3. Which laboratory value is most important before administering a renally C. Pediatric patient
excreted drug? D. Dehydrated patient
A. AST Correct Answer: B
B. ALT Rationale: Increased body fat in older adults allows lipid-soluble drug storage.
C. Creatinine
D. Albumin

,7. Which drug interaction increases the toxicity of another drug? Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Efficacy describes the maximum achievable effect.
A. Additive
B. Synergistic
C. Antagonistic
11. Which patient condition increases free drug levels?
D. Competitive
A. Hyperalbuminemia
Correct Answer: B
B. Hypoalbuminemia
Rationale: Synergism enhances effects, potentially causing toxicity.
C. Increased metabolism
D. Rapid excretion
8. Which route produces the slowest onset of action? Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Low albumin reduces protein binding, increasing free drug.
A. Intravenous
B. Intramuscular
C. Oral
12. Which type of drug reaction is dose-related and predictable?
D. Transdermal
A. Allergic reaction
Correct Answer: D
B. Idiosyncratic reaction
Rationale: Transdermal drugs are absorbed slowly over time.
C. Side effect
D. Anaphylaxis
9. Which factor most affects oral drug bioavailability? Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Side effects occur at expected doses.
A. Renal clearance
B. Hepatic first-pass metabolism
C. Tissue perfusion
13. Which organ is most responsible for drug detoxification?
D. Protein binding
A. Kidneys
Correct Answer: B
B. Liver
Rationale: First-pass metabolism reduces circulating drug levels.
C. Lungs
D. Pancreas
10. Which term refers to the extent a drug produces its intended effect? Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The liver metabolizes and detoxifies drugs.
A. Potency
B. Efficacy
C. Affinity
D. Bioavailability

,14. Which factor prolongs drug action? Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Distribution moves drugs from blood to tissues.
A. High renal clearance
B. Rapid metabolism
C. High protein binding
18. Which patient factor increases drug toxicity risk?
D. Low lipid solubility
A. Short-term therapy
Correct Answer: C
B. Normal renal function
Rationale: Protein-bound drugs are released slowly.
C. Hepatic impairment
D. Wide therapeutic index
15. Which patient requires the lowest initial dose? Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Liver disease reduces drug metabolism.
A. Healthy adult
B. Pediatric patient
C. Older adult
19. Which medication requires serum level monitoring?
D. Middle-aged adult
A. Wide therapeutic index drug
Correct Answer: C
B. Narrow therapeutic index drug
Rationale: Aging decreases metabolism and elimination.
C. Topical medication
D. OTC medication
16. Which route is preferred for immediate drug effects? Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Small safety margins require monitoring.
A. Oral
B. Intramuscular
C. Subcutaneous
20. Which factor most affects intramuscular absorption?
D. Intravenous
A. Gastric emptying
Correct Answer: D
B. Muscle blood flow
Rationale: IV administration provides immediate systemic effects.
C. Renal clearance
D. Protein binding
17. Which term describes the movement of drug into body tissues? Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Increased perfusion enhances IM absorption.
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Excretion

, 21. Which route bypasses first-pass metabolism? 24. Which factor increases risk of medication errors?
A. Oral A. Single prescriber
B. Enteral B. Clear labeling
C. Intramuscular C. Polypharmacy
D. Rectal D. Electronic records
Correct Answer: C Correct Answer: C
Rationale: IM drugs bypass the liver initially. Rationale: Multiple drugs increase error risk.


22. Which term describes drug movement out of the body? 25. Which term refers to genetic variation in drug response?
A. Absorption A. Pharmacokinetics
B. Distribution B. Pharmacodynamics
C. Metabolism C. Pharmacogenomics
D. Excretion D. Toxicology
Correct Answer: D Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Excretion removes drugs from the body. Rationale: Pharmacogenomics studies genetic influence on drug effects.


23. Which condition slows renal drug elimination? 23. Which condition slows renal drug elimination?
A. Increased urine output A. Increased urine output
B. Renal disease B. Renal disease
C. High cardiac output C. High cardiac output
D. Low protein binding D. Low protein binding
Correct Answer: B Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Kidney disease reduces filtration and clearance. Rationale: Renal disease reduces glomerular filtration and drug clearance.


24. Which factor increases the risk of medication errors?
A. Single prescriber
B. Clear labeling
C. Polypharmacy
D. Electronic medication records

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