NUR 326 MENTAL HEALTH CMS ACTUAL EXAM 2026
UPDATE||QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFED ANSWERS
/NR 326 Q&A|LATEST VERSION!!!
Meryl, age 19, is highly dependent on her parents and fears
leaving home to go away to college. Shortly before the semester
starts, she complains that her legs are paralysed and is rushed to
the emergency department. When physical examination rules out
a physical cause for her paralysis, the physician admits her to the
psychiatric unit where she is diagnosed with conversion disorder.
Meryl asks the nurse, “Why has this happened to me?” What is
the nurse’s best response?
A. “You’ve developed this paralysis so you can stay with your
parents. You must deal with the conflict if you want to walk again.”
B. “It must be awful not to be able to move your legs. You may feel
better if you realize the problem is psychological, not physical.”
C. “Your problem is real but there is no physical basis for it. We’ll
work on what is going on in your life and why it’s happened.”
D. “It isn’t uncommon for someone with your personality to develop
a conversion disorder during times of stress.”
CORRECT - Option C: The nurse must be honest with the client by
telling her that the paralysis has no physiologic cause while also
conveying empathy and acknowledging that her symptoms are real.
The client will benefit from psychiatric treatment, which will help her
understand the underlying cause of her symptoms. After the
psychological conflict is resolved, her symptoms will disappear.
Option A: Telling her that she has developed paralysis to avoid
leaving her parents or that her personality caused her disorder
wouldn’t help her understand and resolve the underlying conflict.
Option B: Saying that it must be awful not to be able to move her legs
wouldn’t answer the client’s question; knowing that the cause is
psychological wouldn’t necessarily make her feel better.
Nurse Trina knows that the following drugs have been known to
be effective in treating obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD):
A. Benztropine (Cogentin) and diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
B. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) and Diazepam (Valium)
C. Fluvoxamine (Luvox) and Clomipramine (Anafril)
D. Divalproex (Depakote) and Lithium (Lithobid)
pg. 1
,CORRECT - Option C: The antidepressants fluvoxamine and
clomipramine have been effective in the treatment of OCD.
Option B: Librium and Valium may be helpful in treating anxiety
related to OCD but aren’t drugs of choice to treat the illness.
Options A and D: The other medications mentioned aren’t effective in
the treatment of OCD.
Alfred was newly diagnosed with anxiety disorder. The physician
prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). The nurse is aware that the
teaching instructions for newly prescribed buspirone should
include which of the following?
A. A warning about the drug’s delayed therapeutic effect, which is
from 14-30 days
B. A warning about the incidence of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
(NMS)
C. A reminder of the need to schedule blood work in 1 week to check
blood levels of the drug
D. A warning that immediate sedation can occur with a resultant drop
in pulse
CORRECT - Option A: The client should be informed that the
drug’s therapeutic effect might not be reached for 14 to 30 days. The
client must be instructed to continue taking the drug as directed.
Option B: NMS hasn’t been reported with this drug, but tachycardia is
frequently reported.
Option C: Blood level checks aren’t necessary
Which medications have been found to help reduce or eliminate
panic attacks?
A. Antidepressants
B. Anticholinergics
C. Antipsychotics
D. Mood stabilizers
CORRECT - Option A: Tricyclic and monoamine oxidase (MAO)
inhibitor antidepressants have been found to be effective in treating
clients with panic attacks. Why these drugs help control panic attacks
isn’t clearly understood.
Option B: Anticholinergic agents, which are smooth-muscle relaxants,
relieve physical symptoms of anxiety but don’t relieve the anxiety
itself.
pg. 2
, Option C: Antipsychotic drugs are inappropriate because clients who
experience panic attacks aren’t psychotic.
Option D: Mood stabilizers aren’t indicated because panic attacks are
rarely associated with mood changes.
A 65 years old client is in the first stage of Alzheimer’s disease.
Nurse Patricia should plan to focus this client’s care on:
A. Offering nourishing finger foods to help maintain the client’s
optimal nutritional status.
B. Providing emotional support and individual counseling.
C. Monitoring the client to prevent minor illnesses from turning into
major problems.
D. Suggesting new activities for the client and family to do together.
CORRECT - Option B: Clients in the first stage of Alzheimer’s
disease are aware that something is happening to them and may
become overwhelmed and frightened. Therefore, nursing care
typically focuses on providing emotional support and individual
counseling.
Options A, C, and D: The other options are appropriate during the
second stage of Alzheimer’s disease when the client needs continuous
monitoring to prevent minor illnesses from progressing into major
problems and when maintaining adequate nutrition may become a
challenge. During this stage, offering nourishing finger foods helps
clients to feed themselves and maintain adequate nutrition.
The nurse is assessing a client who has just been admitted to the
emergency department. Which signs would suggest an overdose of
an antianxiety agent?
A. Combativeness, sweating, and confusion
B. Agitation, hyperactivity, and grandiose ideation
C. Emotional lability, euphoria, and impaired memory
D. Suspiciousness, dilated pupils, and increased blood pressure
CORRECT - Option C: Signs of antianxiety agent overdose include
emotional lability, euphoria, and impaired memory.
Option A: Phencyclidine (PCP) overdose can cause combativeness,
sweating, and confusion.
Option B: Amphetamine overdose can result in agitation,
hyperactivity, and grandiose ideation.
pg. 3
UPDATE||QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFED ANSWERS
/NR 326 Q&A|LATEST VERSION!!!
Meryl, age 19, is highly dependent on her parents and fears
leaving home to go away to college. Shortly before the semester
starts, she complains that her legs are paralysed and is rushed to
the emergency department. When physical examination rules out
a physical cause for her paralysis, the physician admits her to the
psychiatric unit where she is diagnosed with conversion disorder.
Meryl asks the nurse, “Why has this happened to me?” What is
the nurse’s best response?
A. “You’ve developed this paralysis so you can stay with your
parents. You must deal with the conflict if you want to walk again.”
B. “It must be awful not to be able to move your legs. You may feel
better if you realize the problem is psychological, not physical.”
C. “Your problem is real but there is no physical basis for it. We’ll
work on what is going on in your life and why it’s happened.”
D. “It isn’t uncommon for someone with your personality to develop
a conversion disorder during times of stress.”
CORRECT - Option C: The nurse must be honest with the client by
telling her that the paralysis has no physiologic cause while also
conveying empathy and acknowledging that her symptoms are real.
The client will benefit from psychiatric treatment, which will help her
understand the underlying cause of her symptoms. After the
psychological conflict is resolved, her symptoms will disappear.
Option A: Telling her that she has developed paralysis to avoid
leaving her parents or that her personality caused her disorder
wouldn’t help her understand and resolve the underlying conflict.
Option B: Saying that it must be awful not to be able to move her legs
wouldn’t answer the client’s question; knowing that the cause is
psychological wouldn’t necessarily make her feel better.
Nurse Trina knows that the following drugs have been known to
be effective in treating obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD):
A. Benztropine (Cogentin) and diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
B. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) and Diazepam (Valium)
C. Fluvoxamine (Luvox) and Clomipramine (Anafril)
D. Divalproex (Depakote) and Lithium (Lithobid)
pg. 1
,CORRECT - Option C: The antidepressants fluvoxamine and
clomipramine have been effective in the treatment of OCD.
Option B: Librium and Valium may be helpful in treating anxiety
related to OCD but aren’t drugs of choice to treat the illness.
Options A and D: The other medications mentioned aren’t effective in
the treatment of OCD.
Alfred was newly diagnosed with anxiety disorder. The physician
prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). The nurse is aware that the
teaching instructions for newly prescribed buspirone should
include which of the following?
A. A warning about the drug’s delayed therapeutic effect, which is
from 14-30 days
B. A warning about the incidence of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
(NMS)
C. A reminder of the need to schedule blood work in 1 week to check
blood levels of the drug
D. A warning that immediate sedation can occur with a resultant drop
in pulse
CORRECT - Option A: The client should be informed that the
drug’s therapeutic effect might not be reached for 14 to 30 days. The
client must be instructed to continue taking the drug as directed.
Option B: NMS hasn’t been reported with this drug, but tachycardia is
frequently reported.
Option C: Blood level checks aren’t necessary
Which medications have been found to help reduce or eliminate
panic attacks?
A. Antidepressants
B. Anticholinergics
C. Antipsychotics
D. Mood stabilizers
CORRECT - Option A: Tricyclic and monoamine oxidase (MAO)
inhibitor antidepressants have been found to be effective in treating
clients with panic attacks. Why these drugs help control panic attacks
isn’t clearly understood.
Option B: Anticholinergic agents, which are smooth-muscle relaxants,
relieve physical symptoms of anxiety but don’t relieve the anxiety
itself.
pg. 2
, Option C: Antipsychotic drugs are inappropriate because clients who
experience panic attacks aren’t psychotic.
Option D: Mood stabilizers aren’t indicated because panic attacks are
rarely associated with mood changes.
A 65 years old client is in the first stage of Alzheimer’s disease.
Nurse Patricia should plan to focus this client’s care on:
A. Offering nourishing finger foods to help maintain the client’s
optimal nutritional status.
B. Providing emotional support and individual counseling.
C. Monitoring the client to prevent minor illnesses from turning into
major problems.
D. Suggesting new activities for the client and family to do together.
CORRECT - Option B: Clients in the first stage of Alzheimer’s
disease are aware that something is happening to them and may
become overwhelmed and frightened. Therefore, nursing care
typically focuses on providing emotional support and individual
counseling.
Options A, C, and D: The other options are appropriate during the
second stage of Alzheimer’s disease when the client needs continuous
monitoring to prevent minor illnesses from progressing into major
problems and when maintaining adequate nutrition may become a
challenge. During this stage, offering nourishing finger foods helps
clients to feed themselves and maintain adequate nutrition.
The nurse is assessing a client who has just been admitted to the
emergency department. Which signs would suggest an overdose of
an antianxiety agent?
A. Combativeness, sweating, and confusion
B. Agitation, hyperactivity, and grandiose ideation
C. Emotional lability, euphoria, and impaired memory
D. Suspiciousness, dilated pupils, and increased blood pressure
CORRECT - Option C: Signs of antianxiety agent overdose include
emotional lability, euphoria, and impaired memory.
Option A: Phencyclidine (PCP) overdose can cause combativeness,
sweating, and confusion.
Option B: Amphetamine overdose can result in agitation,
hyperactivity, and grandiose ideation.
pg. 3
