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Practice ?s Unit 2 NUR 114 prep questions and complete correct answers

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A nurse is reviewing risk factors with a client who has cholecystitis. The nurse identifies which of these as a risk factor for cholecystitis? A. Obesity B. Rapid weight gain C. Decreased blood triglyceride level D. Male sex - correct answers A The nurse recognizes that which patient is at highest risk of developing cholecystitis? A. 35-year-old African American male with BMI of 27 B. 35-year-old Caucasian female with history of weight loss surgery C. 30-year-old African American female with BMI of 32 D. 30-year-old Caucasian male with BMI of 35 - correct answers B The nurse correlates which data from a patient's health history to a risk factor for acalculous cholecystitis? A. Spider bite B. Gallstones C. Sickle cell disease D. Diabetes insipidus - correct answers C The nurse monitors for which clinical manifestation in the patient diagnosed with cholecystitis? A. Rovsing's sign B. Murphy's sign C. Cullen's sign D. Turner's sign - correct answers B In providing care to the patient diagnosed with gallstones, the nurse includes information about which preferred treatment for this disease process? A. Lithotripsy B. Low-fat diet C. Oral agents to dissolve the stones D. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy - correct answers D Which statement by the patient about T-tube management for biliary drainage indicates the need for further teaching? A. "The drainage should be less than 500 mL per day." B. "I should only empty the bag once a day." C. "I will have the tube removed in about 2 weeks." D. "I need to monitor for redness around the site." - correct answers B The nurse correlates which pathophysiological process to Virchow's triad. Select all that apply. A.Vasodilation B.Stasis of blood flow C.Hypercoagulability D.Leukocytosis E.Endothelial injury - correct answers B, C, E In admitting a patient with a vascular disorder, the nurse correlates which clinical manifestation to femoral vein thrombosis? A. Calf pain B.Tenderness in the foot C.Thigh swelling to the knee D.Entire leg swollen and painful - correct answers C Which statement by the client discharged on warfarin (Coumadin) indicates the need for further teaching? A. I can take acetaminophen for pain B.I need to limit intake of leafy vegetables C.It is ok if I see a little blood in my stool D.I need to take the medication at the same time every day - correct answers C In reviewing healthcare provider admission orders for a client admitted for treatment of a DVT of the left lower leg, which order should the nurse questions? A.Compression stockings on both legs B.Sequential compression device on both legs C.Elevate the left leg 10-20 degrees above the heart D.Encourage fluid intake - correct answers B This drug classification can act to lower cholesterol levels in clients with hyperlipidemia. - correct answers What is antihyperlipidemic agents? Will accept lipid-lowering agents, hyperlipidemics The drug category that acts by preventing new clots from forming. - correct answers What is anticoagulants? These drugs pack a powerful punch and act to bust up clots that impede blood flow to our vital organs. - correct answers What are thrombolytics? Drugs with this suffix can work as primary or secondary prevention agents. - correct answers What are -statins? Drug name that acts to dissolve an occluded area of a central venous access device. - correct answers What is altepase? Name two prototype drugs that may cause bleeding as a side effect? - correct answers What are heparin and altepase? Common side effects with medication are rash, constipation, and abdominal cramps. - correct answers What is lovastatin? Severe adverse reactions to this classification of drug include GI bleeding, GU bleeding, and intracranial bleeding. - correct answers What is thrombolytics? The name of the condition that can be caused by toxicity from anticoagulants. - correct answers What is heparin-inducted thrombocytopenia (HIT)? The name of the life-threatening adverse reaction that causes proteins to be released into the bloodstream as muscle cells begin to break down. - correct answers What is Rhabdomylosis? The drug type that is absorbed quickly in the GI tract but can reek havoc on the liver during metabolation. - correct answers What is statins? A drug, such as alteplase, that is metabolized in the liver is excreted through these two ways. - correct answers What is the bile and feces? This process describes how a drug gets to where it needs to go in the body. - correct answers What is distribution? Name the anticoagulant drug that is considered Pregnancy Category X. - correct answers What is warfarin? Name the hyperlipidemic drug that is known to cross the blood-brain barrier? - correct answers What is lovastatin? Name the thrombolytic drug that can only be administered IV push. - correct answers What is reteplase? A client has just been diagnosed with warfarin toxicity. Name the medication the provider will order to reverse the toxic effects? - correct answers What is vitamin K? A condition which can be caused by long-term heparin usage. - correct answers What is alopecia? You just looked at the latest platelet count on your patient who is on a heparin drip, and it has dropped dramatically. You assess your patient to find visibly enlarged veins in his arm. You call the doctor. Name the medicine the provider is most likely to order. - correct answers What is protamine sulfate? You see blood in your patient's foley bag; now his nose is bleeding heavily after you started his thrombolytic. Name the medication you expect the doctor to order to stop the bleeding. - correct answers What is aminocaproic acid? The two lab values we need to assess to monitor for hepatotoxicity. - correct answers What is the ALT and AST? These values are used to evaluate hyperlipidemic effectiveness. - correct answers What are total cholesterol, LDL, and HDL levels? Your client is on a heparin drip. Name the blood test that is used to determine therapeutic levels. - correct answers What is aPTT or PTT? Test stool for occult blood periodically during this type of therapy. - correct answers What is thrombolytic therapy? Because rhabdomyolitis can severely impair the kidneys, name the lab tests used to monitor kidney function. - correct answers What is the BUN and creatinine? A nurse is establishing health promotion goals for a female client who smokes cigarettes, has hypertension, and has a BMI of 26. Which goal should the nurse include? A. The client will list foods that are high in calcium, which should be avoided. B.The client will walk for 30 minutes, 5 days per week. C.The client will increase calorie intake by 200 calories per day. D.The client will replace cigarettes with smokeless tobacco products. - correct answers B A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a family history of HTN. The nurse should inform the client that his BP of 124/79 mmHg places him in which of the following categories? A. Within the expected reference range. B.Elevated. C.Stage I HTN D.Stage 2 HTN - correct answers B A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has HTN and a new prescription for captopril. Which instruction will the nurse will provide? A. Do not use salt substitutes while taking this medication. B.Take medication with food. C.Count your pulse rate before taking the medication. D.Expect to gain weight while taking this medication. - correct answers A A nurse caring for a client who has HTN and asks the nurse about a prescription for propranolol. The nurse should inform the client that this medication is contraindicated in clients who have a history of which of the following conditions? A.Asthma B.Glaucoma C.Depression D.Migraines - correct answers A A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has HTN and a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide. Which instruction should the nurse include? A. Weigh weekly to monitor therapeutic effects. B.Take medication on an empty stomach. C.Take medication early in the day. D.Muscle pain is an expected adverse effect. - correct answers C A nurse is providing teaching about a heart healthy diet to a group of clients with HTN. Which of the following statements by one of the clients indicates a need for further teaching? A. I can eat 10 ounces of lean protein each day. B.Fresh fruits make a good snack option C.I will replace table salt with dried herbs. D.I can thicken gravies with cornstarch as I cook. - correct answers A A patient with heart failure is having a B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) level drawn. The nurse correlates that the results of this diagnostic provide which data? What is the purpose of this laboratory test? A.Measures ejection fraction. B.Rule out ischemic event.

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NSC 114 EXAM 3 Study Guide
Questions and answers 100% correct
verified guaranteed answers
2025\2026-19
Self-regulating, compensatory, regulated by negative feedback systems, several feedback systems to
correct only one physiological imbalance - correct answers Characteristics of Physiological Homeostasis



receives no input from environment and gives no output to the environment (ex chemical reaction in a
test tube) - correct answers Closed System - Physiological Homeostasis



input, throughput, output (humans) - correct answers Open System - Physiological Homeostasis



***inhibits change*** A primary mechanism of homeostasis, whereby a change in a physiological
variable that is being monitored triggers a response that counteracts the initial fluctuation. Helps to
stabilize the - correct answers negative feedback



**stimulates change** A physiological control mechanism in which a change in some variable triggers
mechanisms that amplify the change. - correct answers positive feedback



(level 1) Physiological Needs, (level 2) Safety and Security, (level 3) Relationships, Love Belonging, and
Affection, (level 4) Self Esteem, (level 5) Self Actualization - correct answers Maslow's Hierarchy of
Needs



(1) primary (before illness/injury - education/prevention),

(2) secondary (screening by provider/early detection),

(3) tertiary (after treatment/injury/illness - rehab/maintenance/support) - correct answers Levels of
Prevention



Efforts to prevent an injury or illness from ever occurring. - correct answers primary prevention

,-focuses on early identification of individuals or communities experiencing illness, providing treatment,
and conducting activities that are geared to prevent worsening health status

-examples: communicable disease screening and case finding; early detection and treatment of
diabetes; exercise programs for older adult clients who are frail - correct answers secondary prevention



-aims to prevent the long-term consequences of a chronic illness or disability and to support optimal
functioning

-examples: prevention of pressure ulcers as complication of a spinal cord injury; promoting
independence for the client who has traumatic brain injury; rehab; support groups - correct answers
tertiary prevention



-Individual characteristics and experiences

-Behavior-specific cognitions and affect

-Behavioral outcome - correct answers Health Promotion Model



Precontemplation

Contemplation

Preparation

Action

Maintenance

Termination - correct answers Stages of Health Behavior Change



Agent-Host-Environment Triangle

High-Level Wellness Model

Illness-Wellness Continuum

Health Promotion Model - correct answers Models of Health and Illness



Internal

- biologic

, - psychological

- cognitive

External

- environment

- standards of living

- family/cultural beliefs

- social support/job satisfaction - correct answers Variables Influencing Health



response of an individual to a disease - correct answers definition of illness



any alteration in a body system or organ structure or function - correct answers definition of disease



greater than 6 mos - correct answers duration of chronic illness



improvement or absence of signs of disease - correct answers remission



the symptoms of the disease reappear - correct answers exacerbation



20-39 - correct answers young adult



every 10 yrs - correct answers frequency of tetanus shot



annual - correct answers frequency of eye exams



every 6 mos - correct answers frequency of dental exams



annual - correct answers frequency of physical exam by primary provider



monthly - correct answers frequency of self exams

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