AVTAA Veterinary Technician Specialty
Examination in Anesthesia & Analgesia
2026 Practice Questions with Correct
Answers and Rationales
1. Which of the following agents is considered a dissociative anesthetic?
A. Propofol
B. Ketamine
C. Isoflurane
D. Midazolam
Answer: Ketamine
Rationale: Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic that induces a
trance-like state with analgesia and amnesia, unlike propofol or
isoflurane which are hypnotic anesthetics.
2. The primary function of an endotracheal tube during anesthesia is to:
A. Deliver intravenous drugs
B. Maintain spontaneous respiration
, C. Maintain airway patency and deliver inhalant anesthetics
D. Monitor heart rate
Answer: Maintain airway patency and deliver inhalant anesthetics
Rationale: Endotracheal tubes secure the airway, allow controlled
ventilation, and facilitate the delivery of inhalant anesthetics.
3. Which of the following opioids is a pure mu agonist?
A. Butorphanol
B. Nalbuphine
C. Morphine
D. Buprenorphine
Answer: Morphine
Rationale: Morphine is a pure mu receptor agonist providing potent
analgesia. Butorphanol and nalbuphine are mixed agonist-
antagonists.
4. Which premedication is commonly used for sedation and anxiolysis in
dogs before anesthesia?
A. Atropine
B. Epinephrine
C. Acepromazine
D. Lidocaine
Answer: Acepromazine
Rationale: Acepromazine is a phenothiazine tranquilizer that
provides sedation and reduces anxiety in dogs before anesthesia.
,5. The Minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC) of an inhalant anesthetic
represents:
A. Maximum tolerated dose
B. The concentration preventing movement in 50% of patients in
response to stimulus
C. Dose for unconsciousness in 100% of patients
D. Maximum duration of anesthesia
Answer: The concentration preventing movement in 50% of patients
in response to stimulus
Rationale: MAC is a standardized measure of inhalant anesthetic
potency; lower MAC indicates higher potency.
6. Which monitoring parameter indicates adequate tissue oxygenation?
A. Heart rate
B. Blood pressure
C. Pulse oximetry (SpO₂)
D. End-tidal CO₂
Answer: Pulse oximetry (SpO₂)
Rationale: Pulse oximetry measures oxygen saturation of
hemoglobin, reflecting tissue oxygenation.
7. Which of the following is a common adverse effect of NSAIDs in dogs?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Gastrointestinal ulceration
C. Bradycardia
, D. Hyperactivity
Answer: Gastrointestinal ulceration
Rationale: NSAIDs can inhibit protective prostaglandins in the GI
tract, leading to ulceration or bleeding.
8. During anesthesia, a dog’s heart rate drops from 120 bpm to 60 bpm.
The first action should be:
A. Stop anesthesia immediately
B. Administer epinephrine
C. Assess anesthetic depth and oxygenation
D. Increase fluid rate
Answer: Assess anesthetic depth and oxygenation
Rationale: Bradycardia may indicate excessive anesthetic depth or
hypoxia, so immediate assessment is crucial before interventions.
9. Which IV induction agent is contraindicated in sighthounds due to
prolonged recovery?
A. Propofol
B. Alfaxalone
C. Thiopental
D. Ketamine
Answer: Thiopental
Rationale: Thiopental is highly lipid-soluble and metabolized slowly
in sighthounds, prolonging recovery times.
Examination in Anesthesia & Analgesia
2026 Practice Questions with Correct
Answers and Rationales
1. Which of the following agents is considered a dissociative anesthetic?
A. Propofol
B. Ketamine
C. Isoflurane
D. Midazolam
Answer: Ketamine
Rationale: Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic that induces a
trance-like state with analgesia and amnesia, unlike propofol or
isoflurane which are hypnotic anesthetics.
2. The primary function of an endotracheal tube during anesthesia is to:
A. Deliver intravenous drugs
B. Maintain spontaneous respiration
, C. Maintain airway patency and deliver inhalant anesthetics
D. Monitor heart rate
Answer: Maintain airway patency and deliver inhalant anesthetics
Rationale: Endotracheal tubes secure the airway, allow controlled
ventilation, and facilitate the delivery of inhalant anesthetics.
3. Which of the following opioids is a pure mu agonist?
A. Butorphanol
B. Nalbuphine
C. Morphine
D. Buprenorphine
Answer: Morphine
Rationale: Morphine is a pure mu receptor agonist providing potent
analgesia. Butorphanol and nalbuphine are mixed agonist-
antagonists.
4. Which premedication is commonly used for sedation and anxiolysis in
dogs before anesthesia?
A. Atropine
B. Epinephrine
C. Acepromazine
D. Lidocaine
Answer: Acepromazine
Rationale: Acepromazine is a phenothiazine tranquilizer that
provides sedation and reduces anxiety in dogs before anesthesia.
,5. The Minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC) of an inhalant anesthetic
represents:
A. Maximum tolerated dose
B. The concentration preventing movement in 50% of patients in
response to stimulus
C. Dose for unconsciousness in 100% of patients
D. Maximum duration of anesthesia
Answer: The concentration preventing movement in 50% of patients
in response to stimulus
Rationale: MAC is a standardized measure of inhalant anesthetic
potency; lower MAC indicates higher potency.
6. Which monitoring parameter indicates adequate tissue oxygenation?
A. Heart rate
B. Blood pressure
C. Pulse oximetry (SpO₂)
D. End-tidal CO₂
Answer: Pulse oximetry (SpO₂)
Rationale: Pulse oximetry measures oxygen saturation of
hemoglobin, reflecting tissue oxygenation.
7. Which of the following is a common adverse effect of NSAIDs in dogs?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Gastrointestinal ulceration
C. Bradycardia
, D. Hyperactivity
Answer: Gastrointestinal ulceration
Rationale: NSAIDs can inhibit protective prostaglandins in the GI
tract, leading to ulceration or bleeding.
8. During anesthesia, a dog’s heart rate drops from 120 bpm to 60 bpm.
The first action should be:
A. Stop anesthesia immediately
B. Administer epinephrine
C. Assess anesthetic depth and oxygenation
D. Increase fluid rate
Answer: Assess anesthetic depth and oxygenation
Rationale: Bradycardia may indicate excessive anesthetic depth or
hypoxia, so immediate assessment is crucial before interventions.
9. Which IV induction agent is contraindicated in sighthounds due to
prolonged recovery?
A. Propofol
B. Alfaxalone
C. Thiopental
D. Ketamine
Answer: Thiopental
Rationale: Thiopental is highly lipid-soluble and metabolized slowly
in sighthounds, prolonging recovery times.
