NR511 Final Review – Latest Update 2026 |
Exam Prep | Graded A+
Samuel, age 5, is receiving radiation therapy for his acute lymphocytic leukemia. He is
at increased risk of developing which type of cancer as a secondary malignancy when
he becomes an adult?
A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
B. Brain tumor
C. Liver cancer
D. Esophageal cancer - correct answerB. Brain tumor
Why is parathyroid hormone secretion increased during pregnancy?
A. To meet the increased stress demands on the mother
B. To meet the increased requirements for calcium and vitamin D for fetal skeletal
growth
C. To help prevent neural tube defects in the fetus
D. To help promote neurological g - correct answerB. To meet the increased
requirements for calcium and vitamin D for fetal skeletal growth
What is the name of the test used to assess for nerve- root compression? A. The Apley
scratch test B. The drop arm test C. Finkelstein's test D. Spurling's maneuver - correct
answerD. Spurling's maneuver
Mr. Hughes is a 46-year-old African American man who is in your primary care office for
a physical examination. You recommend which of the following as screening for
prostate cancer?
A. A digital rectal examination (DRE)
B. None; there is no conclusive evidence for screening until age 75 and older - correct
answerB. None; there is no conclusive evidence for screening until age 75 and older
Which of the following individuals most likely will have a false-negative reaction to the
Mantoux test?
A. Marvin, age 57
B. Jane, who is on a short course of corticosteroid therapy for an acute exacerbation of
asthma
C. Jerry, who has lymphoid leukemia
D. Mary, who recently was exposed to someone coughing - correct answerC. Jerry, who
has lymphoid leukemia
Specific conditions demonstrate fluid in the scrotum on transillumination. These include
A. testicular cancer.
B. a varicocele.
C. a hydrocele.
D. testicular torsion. - correct answerC. a hydrocele.
,Max, age 16, comes into your office after having been in a fight and sustaining a human
bite on his fist. Your first course of action is to
A. give a tetanus injection.
B. thoroughly débride and irrigate the wound.
C. initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics.
D. leave the wound open for drainage. - correct answerB. thoroughly débride and
irrigate the wound.
Marisa, age 42, has celiac disease. She is prone to osteopenic bone disease as a result
of impaired calcium absorption because of
A. increased calcium absorption by the small intestine.
B. increased absorption of the fat-soluble vitamin D.
C. the binding of calcium and magnesium in the intestinal lumen by unabsorbed dietary
fatty acids.
D. decreased magnesium absorption.. - correct answerC. the binding of calcium and
magnesium in the intestinal lumen by unabsorbed dietary fatty acids.
Decreased bladder capacity; bladder irritation from a urinary tract infection, tumor,
stones, or irritants such as caffeine and alcohol; and central nervous system disorders
or spinal cord lesions are all contributing factors to
A. stress urinary incontinence.
B. urge urinary incontinence.
C. overflow urinary incontinence.
D. reflex urinary incontinence. - correct answerB. urge urinary incontinence.
Samuel wants his newborn son to be circumcised, but it is noted that the baby has
hypospadias. What do you tell Samuel?
A. "Your son should be circumcised as soon as possible."
B. "Wait until your son is 1 month old; then he can be circumcised."
C. "We first have to check to see where the opening is; then we can determine if your
son can be circumcised or not."
D. "Your son should not be circumcised." - correct answerD. "Your son should not be
circumcised."
Which of the following would be a considered the highest risk factor for the development
of testicular cancer?
A. Cryptorchidism
B. Caucasian race
C. HIV infection
D. Hormonal imbalance in utero - correct answerA. Cryptorchidism
Jeff, age 20, presents to the college health clinic with complaints of difficulty passing his
urine and a discharge from his penis. Upon further investigation, you note that the
discharge is urethral in origin. The most common cause of these symptoms in the young
adult male population is
,A. chronic prostatitis.
B. prostatic abscess.
C. acute prostatitis.
D. prostatic hypertrophy. - correct answerC. acute prostatitis.
Bernard, age 59, presents to the emergency department with a diagnosis of priapism.
Despite application of cold compresses and pain medications, relief is unsuccessful.
What is the treatment of choice?
A. Terbutaline 0.25 mg subcutaneously
B. Phenylephrine injection 0.3 to 0.5 mL into the corpora cavernosa
C. Doxazosin 5 mg sublingually
D. Lidocaine 1% via the glans - correct answerB. Phenylephrine injection 0.3 to 0.5 mL
into the corpora cavernosa
You are referring a 73- year- old client for management of his prostate cancer with
hormonal therapy. It is understood that goserelin acetate (Zoladex) acts as a method of
androgen ablation by
A. blocking the release of follicle- stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone
(LH). - correct answerblocking the release of follicle- stimulating hormone (FSH) and
luteinizing hormone (LH).
Samuel, a 62- year- old who takes many different medications, is complaining of erectile
dysfunction. The nurse practitioner knows that several medications could be the cause
of Samuel's problem. Which of his medications is most likely the culprit?
A. Furosemide (Lasix)
B. Reserpine (Serpasil)
C. Omeprazole (Prilosec)
D. Isosorbide (Imdur) - correct answerB. Reserpine (Serpasil)
Milton, a 72- year- old unmarried, sexually active white man, presents to your clinic with
complaints of hesitancy, urgency, and occasional uncontrolled dribbling. Although the
nurse practitioner suspects benign prostatic hypertrophy, what else should the
differential diagnosis list include?
A. Antihistamine use
B. Urethral stricture
C. Detrusor hyperreflexia
D. Renal calculi - correct answerB. Urethral stricture
Benign prostatic hypertrophy is a common finding as men age. Classically, this
condition may begin with difficulty initiating the urinary stream, hesitancy, urgency,
postvoid dribbling, urinary frequency, nocturia, urinary retention, sensation of a full
bladder immediately after voiding, and incontinence. These preceding symptoms would
also cause the nurse practitioner to consider what other condition as a differential
diagnosis?
A. Epididymitis
B. Testicular cancer
, C. Cancer of the prostate
D. Balanitis - correct answerC. Cancer of the prostate
What is the most common prostatitis syndrome found in males of any age?
A. Nonbacterial prostatitis
B. Prostatodynia
C. Acute bacterial prostatitis
D. Chronic bacterial prostatitis - correct answerA. Nonbacterial prostatitis
Bloody penile discharge is most likely to be associated with which of the following?
A. Cancer of the penis
B. Herpes zoster
C. Epididymitis
D. Peyronie's disease - correct answerC. Epididymitis
The most common gram- negative bacteria that causes both acute and chronic bacterial
prostatitis is
A. Staphylococcus aureus .
B. Klebsiella .
C. Escherichia coli .
D. Enterobacteriaceae . - correct answerC. Escherichia coli .
A history of urinary tract infections in males is often seen in men with chronic bacterial
prostatitis. Other signs and symptoms of chronic bacterial prostatitis include
A. irritative voiding symptoms, low back pain, and perineal pain.
B. nausea and vomiting, as well as fever. C. loss of appetite and weight loss.
D. irritative voiding symptoms, inability to ambulate, and fever. - correct answerA.
irritative voiding symptoms, low back pain, and perineal pain.
The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) recommends against prostate-
specific antigen (PSA)-based screening for prostate cancer. They grade the evidence
related to PSA screening as
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D - correct answerD.D
When performing a prostate examination, the nurse practitioner notes a tender, warm
prostate. What would be the most likely differential diagnosis?
A. Benign prostatic hypertrophy
B. Prostatic abscess
C. Prostate cancer
D. Bacterial prostatitis - correct answerD. Bacterial prostatitis
Exam Prep | Graded A+
Samuel, age 5, is receiving radiation therapy for his acute lymphocytic leukemia. He is
at increased risk of developing which type of cancer as a secondary malignancy when
he becomes an adult?
A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
B. Brain tumor
C. Liver cancer
D. Esophageal cancer - correct answerB. Brain tumor
Why is parathyroid hormone secretion increased during pregnancy?
A. To meet the increased stress demands on the mother
B. To meet the increased requirements for calcium and vitamin D for fetal skeletal
growth
C. To help prevent neural tube defects in the fetus
D. To help promote neurological g - correct answerB. To meet the increased
requirements for calcium and vitamin D for fetal skeletal growth
What is the name of the test used to assess for nerve- root compression? A. The Apley
scratch test B. The drop arm test C. Finkelstein's test D. Spurling's maneuver - correct
answerD. Spurling's maneuver
Mr. Hughes is a 46-year-old African American man who is in your primary care office for
a physical examination. You recommend which of the following as screening for
prostate cancer?
A. A digital rectal examination (DRE)
B. None; there is no conclusive evidence for screening until age 75 and older - correct
answerB. None; there is no conclusive evidence for screening until age 75 and older
Which of the following individuals most likely will have a false-negative reaction to the
Mantoux test?
A. Marvin, age 57
B. Jane, who is on a short course of corticosteroid therapy for an acute exacerbation of
asthma
C. Jerry, who has lymphoid leukemia
D. Mary, who recently was exposed to someone coughing - correct answerC. Jerry, who
has lymphoid leukemia
Specific conditions demonstrate fluid in the scrotum on transillumination. These include
A. testicular cancer.
B. a varicocele.
C. a hydrocele.
D. testicular torsion. - correct answerC. a hydrocele.
,Max, age 16, comes into your office after having been in a fight and sustaining a human
bite on his fist. Your first course of action is to
A. give a tetanus injection.
B. thoroughly débride and irrigate the wound.
C. initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics.
D. leave the wound open for drainage. - correct answerB. thoroughly débride and
irrigate the wound.
Marisa, age 42, has celiac disease. She is prone to osteopenic bone disease as a result
of impaired calcium absorption because of
A. increased calcium absorption by the small intestine.
B. increased absorption of the fat-soluble vitamin D.
C. the binding of calcium and magnesium in the intestinal lumen by unabsorbed dietary
fatty acids.
D. decreased magnesium absorption.. - correct answerC. the binding of calcium and
magnesium in the intestinal lumen by unabsorbed dietary fatty acids.
Decreased bladder capacity; bladder irritation from a urinary tract infection, tumor,
stones, or irritants such as caffeine and alcohol; and central nervous system disorders
or spinal cord lesions are all contributing factors to
A. stress urinary incontinence.
B. urge urinary incontinence.
C. overflow urinary incontinence.
D. reflex urinary incontinence. - correct answerB. urge urinary incontinence.
Samuel wants his newborn son to be circumcised, but it is noted that the baby has
hypospadias. What do you tell Samuel?
A. "Your son should be circumcised as soon as possible."
B. "Wait until your son is 1 month old; then he can be circumcised."
C. "We first have to check to see where the opening is; then we can determine if your
son can be circumcised or not."
D. "Your son should not be circumcised." - correct answerD. "Your son should not be
circumcised."
Which of the following would be a considered the highest risk factor for the development
of testicular cancer?
A. Cryptorchidism
B. Caucasian race
C. HIV infection
D. Hormonal imbalance in utero - correct answerA. Cryptorchidism
Jeff, age 20, presents to the college health clinic with complaints of difficulty passing his
urine and a discharge from his penis. Upon further investigation, you note that the
discharge is urethral in origin. The most common cause of these symptoms in the young
adult male population is
,A. chronic prostatitis.
B. prostatic abscess.
C. acute prostatitis.
D. prostatic hypertrophy. - correct answerC. acute prostatitis.
Bernard, age 59, presents to the emergency department with a diagnosis of priapism.
Despite application of cold compresses and pain medications, relief is unsuccessful.
What is the treatment of choice?
A. Terbutaline 0.25 mg subcutaneously
B. Phenylephrine injection 0.3 to 0.5 mL into the corpora cavernosa
C. Doxazosin 5 mg sublingually
D. Lidocaine 1% via the glans - correct answerB. Phenylephrine injection 0.3 to 0.5 mL
into the corpora cavernosa
You are referring a 73- year- old client for management of his prostate cancer with
hormonal therapy. It is understood that goserelin acetate (Zoladex) acts as a method of
androgen ablation by
A. blocking the release of follicle- stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone
(LH). - correct answerblocking the release of follicle- stimulating hormone (FSH) and
luteinizing hormone (LH).
Samuel, a 62- year- old who takes many different medications, is complaining of erectile
dysfunction. The nurse practitioner knows that several medications could be the cause
of Samuel's problem. Which of his medications is most likely the culprit?
A. Furosemide (Lasix)
B. Reserpine (Serpasil)
C. Omeprazole (Prilosec)
D. Isosorbide (Imdur) - correct answerB. Reserpine (Serpasil)
Milton, a 72- year- old unmarried, sexually active white man, presents to your clinic with
complaints of hesitancy, urgency, and occasional uncontrolled dribbling. Although the
nurse practitioner suspects benign prostatic hypertrophy, what else should the
differential diagnosis list include?
A. Antihistamine use
B. Urethral stricture
C. Detrusor hyperreflexia
D. Renal calculi - correct answerB. Urethral stricture
Benign prostatic hypertrophy is a common finding as men age. Classically, this
condition may begin with difficulty initiating the urinary stream, hesitancy, urgency,
postvoid dribbling, urinary frequency, nocturia, urinary retention, sensation of a full
bladder immediately after voiding, and incontinence. These preceding symptoms would
also cause the nurse practitioner to consider what other condition as a differential
diagnosis?
A. Epididymitis
B. Testicular cancer
, C. Cancer of the prostate
D. Balanitis - correct answerC. Cancer of the prostate
What is the most common prostatitis syndrome found in males of any age?
A. Nonbacterial prostatitis
B. Prostatodynia
C. Acute bacterial prostatitis
D. Chronic bacterial prostatitis - correct answerA. Nonbacterial prostatitis
Bloody penile discharge is most likely to be associated with which of the following?
A. Cancer of the penis
B. Herpes zoster
C. Epididymitis
D. Peyronie's disease - correct answerC. Epididymitis
The most common gram- negative bacteria that causes both acute and chronic bacterial
prostatitis is
A. Staphylococcus aureus .
B. Klebsiella .
C. Escherichia coli .
D. Enterobacteriaceae . - correct answerC. Escherichia coli .
A history of urinary tract infections in males is often seen in men with chronic bacterial
prostatitis. Other signs and symptoms of chronic bacterial prostatitis include
A. irritative voiding symptoms, low back pain, and perineal pain.
B. nausea and vomiting, as well as fever. C. loss of appetite and weight loss.
D. irritative voiding symptoms, inability to ambulate, and fever. - correct answerA.
irritative voiding symptoms, low back pain, and perineal pain.
The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) recommends against prostate-
specific antigen (PSA)-based screening for prostate cancer. They grade the evidence
related to PSA screening as
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D - correct answerD.D
When performing a prostate examination, the nurse practitioner notes a tender, warm
prostate. What would be the most likely differential diagnosis?
A. Benign prostatic hypertrophy
B. Prostatic abscess
C. Prostate cancer
D. Bacterial prostatitis - correct answerD. Bacterial prostatitis
