EMS 1055 QUIZ QUESTIONS (QUIZZES 1-14) ANSWERED CORRECTLY LATEST UPDATE 2026
What does the R in the CHART acronym represent? - Answers Treatment rendered
Which patients should you protect yourself with BSI precautions? - Answers All patients [patients who
look sick, patients who are bleeding, patients with a productive cough, etc.]
Regrading medical abbreviations, what does the letter C with a line above it mean? - Answers with
You are assessing the pupils of a patient with a significant head injury. You notice that one pupils is
dilated while the other appears normal (ipsilateral pupil dilation). What condition do you suspect? -
Answers Cerebral herniation
You initiate treatment of an injured patient. You are waiting for help to arrive, but are in a huge hurry.
You decide to leave before handing over care to an equal or higher level provider. This is called? -
Answers Abandonment
The respiratory pattern that is fast and deep, often associated with metabolic acidosis secondary to
diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is called? - Answers Kussmal's
Which of the following is defined by only performing skills and treatment that fall within your
certification and training? - Answers Scope of Practice
Which of the following patients is experiencing tachypnea? - Answers A patient with a respiratory rate
of 25 bpm
You palpate a radial pulse and it is present. You know that the systolic blood pressure is at LEAST? -
Answers 80 mmHg
You ask an adult patient for consent to treat them and they verbally respond that you can. What kind
of consent is this? - Answers Expressed
Which adjunct airway is best used in patients with an intact gag reflex? - Answers NPA
An OPA is measured from - Answers edge of the mouth to the angle of the jaw
Which of the following is NOT a sign of inadequate breathing? - Answers Tachypnea [while patients
with inadequate breathing may be tachypnic, it's not a sign of inadequate breathing when no other
signs are present]
How much oxygen flow should you set for a BVM? - Answers 10-15 LPM
How much oxygen flow should you set for a patient on a nasal cannula? - Answers 2-6 LPM
You place a patient on a SpO2 monitor. You know from lecture that you should place oxygen on any
patient with a reading lower than what value? - Answers 94%
Which pulse point, when palpated can cause a vagal response and/or cause a stroke? - Answers
carotid
Which nare of the nose is typically larger and should be used for NPA insertion? - Answers Right
How much oxygen should you flow for a patient on a NRBM? - Answers 10-15 LPM
You are assessing AVPU on a patient. The patients eyes are closed and does not respond to your
voice. You perform a light sternal rub and the patient groans. What score do you give on the AVPU
scale? - Answers Pain
When treating a patient with a penetrating wound, you should look for: - Answers an exit wound
You arrive at the scene of a MVC involving a truck that has a diamond placard that says "corrosive"
and it's leaking fluid on the ground. You should: - Answers keep a safe distance and notify dispatch
The Golden Hour begins at the moment a patient is injured. When does it end? - Answers When the
patient gets to surgery
Which of the following organs will suffer the least structural damage from a gunshot wound from a
rifle? - Answers Lung [generally, damage done is proportional to tissue density; highly dense organs
such as bone, muscle, and the liver sustain more damage than less dense organs such as the lungs]
A patient who is ejected from a rollover MVC has an increase change of death of - Answers 25%
What par of the body does a primary blast injury primary involve? - Answers Air containing organs
In a rear-impact motor vehicle crash, which area of the spine is most susceptible to injury? - Answers
Cervical [the sudden increase in acceleration produces posterior displacement of the occupants and
possible hyperextension of the cervical spine if the headrest is not properly adjusted; the potential for
cervical spine injuries is great]
You are about to assess a trauma patient. Which step is done first? - Answers Assess for hemorrhage
Which of the following is a devastating injury seen in lateral (side) impact collisions? - Answers Aortic
rupture
Stabilizing an impaled object is the rule of thumb for all penetrating injuries. What is the only
exception where you remove the object? - Answers Impaled objects blocking the airway
, What is the medical term for hives as seen in allergic reactions? - Answers Urticaria
A 52 y/o female presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should: -
Answers Assess adequacy of her respirations
A patient who is alert, speaking normally and obeys all commands has a GCS Score of: - Answers 15
A patient has a blood pressure of 160/82. What is their MAP? - Answers 108
You respond to the scene of an MVC. You find a 20 y/o male entrapped in the vehicle. He has an open
head injury and massive facial trauma. You perform a general impression, you suspect the patient is
apnic. How should you proceed? - Answers Asses the patient for exsanguination, check ABC's
A patient has a blood pressure of 160/82. What is their pulse pressure? - Answers 78
What lungs sounds do you hear? - Answers Wheezes
A general impression of the patient should be performed: - Answers at a distance when the patient is
first seen
You are assessing a patient who is responsive to painful stimuli. The are not speaking but lets out an
occasional moan. When you apply painful stimuli, they withdraw from the pain. What is the patients
GCS Score? - Answers 8
Which of the following is correct? - Answers Your hand is distal to your elbow
Which of the following is NOT part of the DCAP-BLS-TIC acronym? - Answers Bruising
A 42-year-old male is involved in a motorcycle collision. Which of the following assessment findings
should be managed first? - Answers External Arterial Bleed
[if patient has major bleeding, priority is C-A-B-C. The first C stands for control life-threatening
bleeding. (do no confuse this with the American Heart Association/ILCOR's "CAB" for cardiac arrest,
where the C stands for compressions.) If your patient has major external bleeding, you must
immediately control it.]
You finished the primary survey of an 18 y/o female with an altered LOC with significant signs of a
head injury. You are 15 minutes from the trauma center. When do you perform the secondary
survey? - Answers During transport
When performing the ITLS Primary Survery, the team leader may minimize errors by: - Answers
Delegating interventions [this team approach makes the most efficient use of time and allows you to
rapidly perform the initial assessment without becoming distracted by performing the necessary
interventions yourself, which can interrupt your thought process and cause errors]
Which one the following is a reason to interrupt the initial assessment? - Answers Cardiac arrest
[Remember, once you begin patient assessment in the ITLS Primary Survey, only four things should
cause you to interrupt completion of the assessment. You may interrupt the assessment sequence
only if (1) the scene becomes unsafe, (2) you must treat exsanguinating hemorrhage, (3) you must
treat an airway obstruction, or (4) you must treat cardiac arrest.]
What might be easy to overlook, but is very important when assessing a patient who fell from a
significant height? - Answers Internal injuries
Which finding requires interruption of the ITLS Primary Survey? - Answers Complete airway
obstruction [You may interrupt the assessment sequence only if (1) the scene becomes unsafe, (2)
you must treat exsanguinating hemorrhage, (3) you must treat an airway obstruction, or (4) you must
treat cardiac arrest. (Respiratory arrest, dyspnea, or bleeding management should be delegated to
other team members while you continue assessment of the patient.)]
Which of the following should always be performed prior to transportation? - Answers Control major
external bleeding [the following procedures are done at the scene: control major external bleeding,
open and maintain a patient airway (position, sweep, suction; intubate if indicated and necessary),
ventilate, apply oxygen, initiate CPR, seal sucking chest wounds, stabilize flail segments, decompress
tension pneumothorax when indicated, stabilize penetrating objects, and maintain SMR if indicated.]
Prolonged scene times may reflect: - Answers Ineffective team collaboration
Which of the following injuries would change a trauma patient's transport classification from "stable"
to "load and go" - Answers pelvic fracture
Which of the following findings would not make a patient difficult to ventilate with a bag-valve mask?
- Answers Multiple nose piercings
["BOOTS" mnemonic:
B-Beards
O-Obesity
O-Older patients
T-Toothlessness
What does the R in the CHART acronym represent? - Answers Treatment rendered
Which patients should you protect yourself with BSI precautions? - Answers All patients [patients who
look sick, patients who are bleeding, patients with a productive cough, etc.]
Regrading medical abbreviations, what does the letter C with a line above it mean? - Answers with
You are assessing the pupils of a patient with a significant head injury. You notice that one pupils is
dilated while the other appears normal (ipsilateral pupil dilation). What condition do you suspect? -
Answers Cerebral herniation
You initiate treatment of an injured patient. You are waiting for help to arrive, but are in a huge hurry.
You decide to leave before handing over care to an equal or higher level provider. This is called? -
Answers Abandonment
The respiratory pattern that is fast and deep, often associated with metabolic acidosis secondary to
diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is called? - Answers Kussmal's
Which of the following is defined by only performing skills and treatment that fall within your
certification and training? - Answers Scope of Practice
Which of the following patients is experiencing tachypnea? - Answers A patient with a respiratory rate
of 25 bpm
You palpate a radial pulse and it is present. You know that the systolic blood pressure is at LEAST? -
Answers 80 mmHg
You ask an adult patient for consent to treat them and they verbally respond that you can. What kind
of consent is this? - Answers Expressed
Which adjunct airway is best used in patients with an intact gag reflex? - Answers NPA
An OPA is measured from - Answers edge of the mouth to the angle of the jaw
Which of the following is NOT a sign of inadequate breathing? - Answers Tachypnea [while patients
with inadequate breathing may be tachypnic, it's not a sign of inadequate breathing when no other
signs are present]
How much oxygen flow should you set for a BVM? - Answers 10-15 LPM
How much oxygen flow should you set for a patient on a nasal cannula? - Answers 2-6 LPM
You place a patient on a SpO2 monitor. You know from lecture that you should place oxygen on any
patient with a reading lower than what value? - Answers 94%
Which pulse point, when palpated can cause a vagal response and/or cause a stroke? - Answers
carotid
Which nare of the nose is typically larger and should be used for NPA insertion? - Answers Right
How much oxygen should you flow for a patient on a NRBM? - Answers 10-15 LPM
You are assessing AVPU on a patient. The patients eyes are closed and does not respond to your
voice. You perform a light sternal rub and the patient groans. What score do you give on the AVPU
scale? - Answers Pain
When treating a patient with a penetrating wound, you should look for: - Answers an exit wound
You arrive at the scene of a MVC involving a truck that has a diamond placard that says "corrosive"
and it's leaking fluid on the ground. You should: - Answers keep a safe distance and notify dispatch
The Golden Hour begins at the moment a patient is injured. When does it end? - Answers When the
patient gets to surgery
Which of the following organs will suffer the least structural damage from a gunshot wound from a
rifle? - Answers Lung [generally, damage done is proportional to tissue density; highly dense organs
such as bone, muscle, and the liver sustain more damage than less dense organs such as the lungs]
A patient who is ejected from a rollover MVC has an increase change of death of - Answers 25%
What par of the body does a primary blast injury primary involve? - Answers Air containing organs
In a rear-impact motor vehicle crash, which area of the spine is most susceptible to injury? - Answers
Cervical [the sudden increase in acceleration produces posterior displacement of the occupants and
possible hyperextension of the cervical spine if the headrest is not properly adjusted; the potential for
cervical spine injuries is great]
You are about to assess a trauma patient. Which step is done first? - Answers Assess for hemorrhage
Which of the following is a devastating injury seen in lateral (side) impact collisions? - Answers Aortic
rupture
Stabilizing an impaled object is the rule of thumb for all penetrating injuries. What is the only
exception where you remove the object? - Answers Impaled objects blocking the airway
, What is the medical term for hives as seen in allergic reactions? - Answers Urticaria
A 52 y/o female presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should: -
Answers Assess adequacy of her respirations
A patient who is alert, speaking normally and obeys all commands has a GCS Score of: - Answers 15
A patient has a blood pressure of 160/82. What is their MAP? - Answers 108
You respond to the scene of an MVC. You find a 20 y/o male entrapped in the vehicle. He has an open
head injury and massive facial trauma. You perform a general impression, you suspect the patient is
apnic. How should you proceed? - Answers Asses the patient for exsanguination, check ABC's
A patient has a blood pressure of 160/82. What is their pulse pressure? - Answers 78
What lungs sounds do you hear? - Answers Wheezes
A general impression of the patient should be performed: - Answers at a distance when the patient is
first seen
You are assessing a patient who is responsive to painful stimuli. The are not speaking but lets out an
occasional moan. When you apply painful stimuli, they withdraw from the pain. What is the patients
GCS Score? - Answers 8
Which of the following is correct? - Answers Your hand is distal to your elbow
Which of the following is NOT part of the DCAP-BLS-TIC acronym? - Answers Bruising
A 42-year-old male is involved in a motorcycle collision. Which of the following assessment findings
should be managed first? - Answers External Arterial Bleed
[if patient has major bleeding, priority is C-A-B-C. The first C stands for control life-threatening
bleeding. (do no confuse this with the American Heart Association/ILCOR's "CAB" for cardiac arrest,
where the C stands for compressions.) If your patient has major external bleeding, you must
immediately control it.]
You finished the primary survey of an 18 y/o female with an altered LOC with significant signs of a
head injury. You are 15 minutes from the trauma center. When do you perform the secondary
survey? - Answers During transport
When performing the ITLS Primary Survery, the team leader may minimize errors by: - Answers
Delegating interventions [this team approach makes the most efficient use of time and allows you to
rapidly perform the initial assessment without becoming distracted by performing the necessary
interventions yourself, which can interrupt your thought process and cause errors]
Which one the following is a reason to interrupt the initial assessment? - Answers Cardiac arrest
[Remember, once you begin patient assessment in the ITLS Primary Survey, only four things should
cause you to interrupt completion of the assessment. You may interrupt the assessment sequence
only if (1) the scene becomes unsafe, (2) you must treat exsanguinating hemorrhage, (3) you must
treat an airway obstruction, or (4) you must treat cardiac arrest.]
What might be easy to overlook, but is very important when assessing a patient who fell from a
significant height? - Answers Internal injuries
Which finding requires interruption of the ITLS Primary Survey? - Answers Complete airway
obstruction [You may interrupt the assessment sequence only if (1) the scene becomes unsafe, (2)
you must treat exsanguinating hemorrhage, (3) you must treat an airway obstruction, or (4) you must
treat cardiac arrest. (Respiratory arrest, dyspnea, or bleeding management should be delegated to
other team members while you continue assessment of the patient.)]
Which of the following should always be performed prior to transportation? - Answers Control major
external bleeding [the following procedures are done at the scene: control major external bleeding,
open and maintain a patient airway (position, sweep, suction; intubate if indicated and necessary),
ventilate, apply oxygen, initiate CPR, seal sucking chest wounds, stabilize flail segments, decompress
tension pneumothorax when indicated, stabilize penetrating objects, and maintain SMR if indicated.]
Prolonged scene times may reflect: - Answers Ineffective team collaboration
Which of the following injuries would change a trauma patient's transport classification from "stable"
to "load and go" - Answers pelvic fracture
Which of the following findings would not make a patient difficult to ventilate with a bag-valve mask?
- Answers Multiple nose piercings
["BOOTS" mnemonic:
B-Beards
O-Obesity
O-Older patients
T-Toothlessness
