PREHOSPITAL TRAUMA LIFE SUPPORT (PHTLS)
COMPREHENSIVE EXAM ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS - LATEST AND COMPLETE UPDATE WITH
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS – ASSURED PASS WITH INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF.
1. Which principle best defines the primary goal of Prehospital Trauma Life
Support?
A. Rapid transport regardless of patient condition
B. Definitive diagnosis in the field
C. Early identification and management of life-threatening conditions
D. Performing advanced procedures on scene
Rationale: PHTLS emphasizes rapid recognition and immediate
management of life threats to reduce morbidity and mortality, rather than
definitive diagnosis or prolonged on-scene care.
2. In the PHTLS trauma assessment sequence, which component takes
priority?
A. Secondary survey
B. Transport decision
C. Primary survey with immediate interventions
D. Detailed patient history
Rationale: The primary survey (ABCDE) identifies and treats immediate
life-threatening conditions and always takes precedence.
3. A trauma patient is found supine with snoring respirations. What is the most
appropriate initial airway intervention?
A. Endotracheal intubation
B. Nasopharyngeal airway insertion
C. Manual airway positioning with spinal motion restriction
, D. Bag-valve-mask ventilation with oxygen
Rationale: Snoring respirations indicate partial airway obstruction, often
relieved initially by manual positioning while maintaining spinal
precautions.
4. Which finding most strongly indicates inadequate ventilation in a trauma
patient?
A. Oxygen saturation of 95%
B. Heart rate of 110 bpm
C. Asymmetric chest rise
D. Capillary refill of 3 seconds
Rationale: Asymmetric chest rise suggests ineffective ventilation, possibly
due to pneumothorax or flail chest.
5. According to PHTLS, which patient requires immediate transport with
minimal on-scene time?
A. Stable patient with isolated extremity fracture
B. Patient with controlled external bleeding
C. Patient with altered mental status after high-energy mechanism
D. Patient with minor lacerations
Rationale: Altered mental status following significant mechanism indicates
potential life-threatening injury requiring rapid transport.
6. Which mechanism of injury is most predictive of severe internal trauma?
A. Ground-level fall in an adult
B. Low-speed rear-end collision
C. High-speed rollover motor vehicle collision
D. Sports-related ankle injury
Rationale: High-energy mechanisms such as rollovers correlate strongly
with multisystem trauma.
,7. During the primary survey, massive external hemorrhage should be
addressed at which point?
A. After airway assessment
B. During circulation assessment only
C. Immediately upon identification, even before airway if severe
D. During the secondary survey
Rationale: Uncontrolled hemorrhage can cause rapid death and must be
controlled as soon as identified.
8. The most effective initial method to control severe external bleeding from an
extremity is:
A. Elevation of the limb
B. Pressure dressing only
C. Direct pressure with or without a tourniquet
D. Proximal arterial compression
Rationale: Direct pressure is first-line; tourniquets are indicated if bleeding
is severe or uncontrolled.
9. Which sign is most consistent with hypovolemic shock in trauma?
A. Bradycardia and hypertension
B. Warm, flushed skin
C. Tachycardia with cool, clammy skin
D. Bounding peripheral pulses
Rationale: Hypovolemic shock presents with sympathetic response:
tachycardia, vasoconstriction, and cool skin.
10.A trauma patient has a weak radial pulse and delayed capillary refill. This
most likely indicates:
A. Neurogenic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
, C. Inadequate perfusion
D. Normal physiologic response
Rationale: Weak pulses and delayed refill suggest compromised circulation
and perfusion.
11.Which Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score indicates severe traumatic brain
injury?
A. 13–15
B. 9–12
C. 8 or less
D. 10–15
Rationale: A GCS ≤8 defines severe brain injury and often necessitates
airway protection.
12.When assessing disability in the primary survey, which tool is most
appropriate?
A. SAMPLE history
B. AVPU scale
C. GCS or AVPU for rapid neurologic status
D. Detailed cranial nerve exam
Rationale: Rapid neurologic assessment using AVPU or GCS identifies
immediate threats.
13.Full exposure of the trauma patient is important primarily to:
A. Improve patient comfort
B. Facilitate IV access
C. Identify hidden injuries
D. Reduce scene time
Rationale: Complete exposure allows detection of occult injuries that may
otherwise be missed.
COMPREHENSIVE EXAM ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS - LATEST AND COMPLETE UPDATE WITH
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS – ASSURED PASS WITH INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF.
1. Which principle best defines the primary goal of Prehospital Trauma Life
Support?
A. Rapid transport regardless of patient condition
B. Definitive diagnosis in the field
C. Early identification and management of life-threatening conditions
D. Performing advanced procedures on scene
Rationale: PHTLS emphasizes rapid recognition and immediate
management of life threats to reduce morbidity and mortality, rather than
definitive diagnosis or prolonged on-scene care.
2. In the PHTLS trauma assessment sequence, which component takes
priority?
A. Secondary survey
B. Transport decision
C. Primary survey with immediate interventions
D. Detailed patient history
Rationale: The primary survey (ABCDE) identifies and treats immediate
life-threatening conditions and always takes precedence.
3. A trauma patient is found supine with snoring respirations. What is the most
appropriate initial airway intervention?
A. Endotracheal intubation
B. Nasopharyngeal airway insertion
C. Manual airway positioning with spinal motion restriction
, D. Bag-valve-mask ventilation with oxygen
Rationale: Snoring respirations indicate partial airway obstruction, often
relieved initially by manual positioning while maintaining spinal
precautions.
4. Which finding most strongly indicates inadequate ventilation in a trauma
patient?
A. Oxygen saturation of 95%
B. Heart rate of 110 bpm
C. Asymmetric chest rise
D. Capillary refill of 3 seconds
Rationale: Asymmetric chest rise suggests ineffective ventilation, possibly
due to pneumothorax or flail chest.
5. According to PHTLS, which patient requires immediate transport with
minimal on-scene time?
A. Stable patient with isolated extremity fracture
B. Patient with controlled external bleeding
C. Patient with altered mental status after high-energy mechanism
D. Patient with minor lacerations
Rationale: Altered mental status following significant mechanism indicates
potential life-threatening injury requiring rapid transport.
6. Which mechanism of injury is most predictive of severe internal trauma?
A. Ground-level fall in an adult
B. Low-speed rear-end collision
C. High-speed rollover motor vehicle collision
D. Sports-related ankle injury
Rationale: High-energy mechanisms such as rollovers correlate strongly
with multisystem trauma.
,7. During the primary survey, massive external hemorrhage should be
addressed at which point?
A. After airway assessment
B. During circulation assessment only
C. Immediately upon identification, even before airway if severe
D. During the secondary survey
Rationale: Uncontrolled hemorrhage can cause rapid death and must be
controlled as soon as identified.
8. The most effective initial method to control severe external bleeding from an
extremity is:
A. Elevation of the limb
B. Pressure dressing only
C. Direct pressure with or without a tourniquet
D. Proximal arterial compression
Rationale: Direct pressure is first-line; tourniquets are indicated if bleeding
is severe or uncontrolled.
9. Which sign is most consistent with hypovolemic shock in trauma?
A. Bradycardia and hypertension
B. Warm, flushed skin
C. Tachycardia with cool, clammy skin
D. Bounding peripheral pulses
Rationale: Hypovolemic shock presents with sympathetic response:
tachycardia, vasoconstriction, and cool skin.
10.A trauma patient has a weak radial pulse and delayed capillary refill. This
most likely indicates:
A. Neurogenic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
, C. Inadequate perfusion
D. Normal physiologic response
Rationale: Weak pulses and delayed refill suggest compromised circulation
and perfusion.
11.Which Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score indicates severe traumatic brain
injury?
A. 13–15
B. 9–12
C. 8 or less
D. 10–15
Rationale: A GCS ≤8 defines severe brain injury and often necessitates
airway protection.
12.When assessing disability in the primary survey, which tool is most
appropriate?
A. SAMPLE history
B. AVPU scale
C. GCS or AVPU for rapid neurologic status
D. Detailed cranial nerve exam
Rationale: Rapid neurologic assessment using AVPU or GCS identifies
immediate threats.
13.Full exposure of the trauma patient is important primarily to:
A. Improve patient comfort
B. Facilitate IV access
C. Identify hidden injuries
D. Reduce scene time
Rationale: Complete exposure allows detection of occult injuries that may
otherwise be missed.
