AAPD REMEMBERED EXAM
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
In infants, what is the best indicator for future caries? - Correct Answers -plaque on
maxillary anteriors
A pea-sized amount of fluoridated toothpaste is appropriate for what age range? -
Correct Answers -age 2-5
In a child under the age of 3, what factors automatically assign that child an S-ECC
status? - Correct Answers -White spot lesions, any carious lesion on a smooth surface
Name 7 factors that assign a high caries risk to a 0-5 year old. - Correct Answers -1)
Mother/caregiver with active caries; 2) Parent/caregiver low SES; 3) greater than three
between-meal sugar-containing snacks or beverages per day; 4) Child is put to bed with
a bottle containing natural or added sugar; 5) child has greater than 1 DMFS; 6) Child
has active white spot lesions or enamel defects; 7) Child has elevated MS levels
Name 3 factors that assign a moderate caries risk to a 0-5 year old. - Correct Answers -
1) Child has special health care needs; 2) Child is a recent immigrant; 3) Child has
plaque on teeth
Name the 4 caries protective factors. - Correct Answers -1) Child receives optimally-
fluoridated drinking water or fluoride supplements; 2) Child has teeth brushed daily with
fluoridated toothpaste; 3) Child receives topical fluoride from health professional; 4)
Child has dental home/regular dental care
Neural crest cells develop from ________. Name some structures that neural crests are
responsible for forming. - Correct Answers -1) ectoderm on the lateral border of the
neural plate. 2) bone, cartilage, dentin, dermis (not enamel)
Dental lamina begins formation at _______ embryonic age. - Correct Answers -6 weeks
From what structure does dental lamina form? - Correct Answers -basal layer of oral
epithelium
What structures form from dental lamina? - Correct Answers -tooth buds
,At what age does the permanent first molar begin initiation? At what age does the
permanent 2nd molar begin initiation? - Correct Answers -1) 16 weeks in utero 2) 4-5
years
Name the components of the tooth bud. - Correct Answers -enamel organ, dental
papilla, dental sac
Name the components of the enamel organ. - Correct Answers -Inner enamel
epithelium (concavity), outer enamel epithelium (convexity), stellate reticulum (center)
The dental papilla forms from ________. - Correct Answers -neural crest
Name the stages of tooth development in order. - Correct Answers -Bud stage, cap
stage, bell stage, advanced bell stage
Hertwig's epithelial root sheath is composed of what structures? - Correct Answers -
inner and outer enamel epithelia (not stratum intermedium or stellate reticulum)
The remnants of Hertwig's root sheath persist as _____. - Correct Answers -rests of
Malassez
Problems in the initiation stage of tooth development lead to anomalies of __________.
- Correct Answers -Tooth number
Problems in the proliferation stage of tooth development lead to anomalies of
__________. - Correct Answers -size, proportion, number, twinning
Problems in the histodifferentiation stage of tooth development lead to anomalies of
____________. - Correct Answers -anomalies of enamel and dentin (enamel
hypoplasia, AI, DI, DD)
Problems in the morphodifferentiation stage of tooth development lead to
_____________. - Correct Answers -Anomalies of enamel, dentin, and cementum
Is hyperdontia more common in males or females? - Correct Answers -males (2:1)
Is hyperdontia more common in primary or permanent dentition? - Correct Answers -
permanent dentition (5:1)
Is hyperdontia more common in the maxilla or the mandible? - Correct Answers -maxilla
(9:1)
Name the most common teeth affected by hypodontia in order of frequency. - Correct
Answers -3rd molars, mandibular 2nd premolar, maxillary lateral, maxillary 2nd
premolar
,Name (9) syndromes associated with hyperdontia. - Correct Answers -Apert's,
cleidocranial dysplasia, Gardner syndrome, Crouzon syndrome, Sturge-Weber
syndrome, Orofaciodigital syndrome I, Hallerman-Strieff syndrome, cleft lip and palate,
Down syndrome
Describe features of Apert Syndrome. - Correct Answers -supernumerary teeth, cleft
palate, delayed/ectopic eruption, shovel shaped incisors, hypoplastic midface,
syndactyly, craniosynostosis, hypertelorism, class III with anterior openbite, crowded
dentition
Describe features of cleidocranial dysplasia. - Correct Answers -supernumerary teeth,
delayed development/eruption, midface hypoplasia, enamel hypoplasia, missing
clavicle, craniosynostosis
Describe features of Gardner Syndrome - Correct Answers -supernumerary teeth,
osteomas of the jaw, delayed eruption, colonic polyps
Describe features of Crouzon syndrome. - Correct Answers -supernumerary teeth,
midface hypoplasia, inverted V shaped palate, craniosynostosis, exopthalamos
Describe features of Sturge-Weber syndrome - Correct Answers -port-wine stains which
follow the trigeminal nerve, supernumerary teeth, overgrowth of maxilla, ipsilateral
gyriform calcifications of cerebral cortex, 100% have seizures, hemiplegia, ocular
defects, bleeding and gingival hyperplasia, alveolar bone loss, pyogenic granulomas
Describe features of orofaciodigital syndrome. - Correct Answers -supernumerary teeth
and/or hypodontia; multiple or hyperplastic frenula, cleft tongue
Describe features of Hallerman-Strieff syndrome. - Correct Answers -supernumerary
teeth, mandibular hypoplasia, high palatal vault, delayed primary exfoliation, malar
hypoplasia
Describe features of ectodermal dysplasia. - Correct Answers -hypodontia, conical
crowns, deficient alveolar ridge
Describe features of achondroplasia - Correct Answers -hypodontia, short stature,
frontal bossing, midface hypoplasia
Describe features of chondroectodermal dysplasia (aka Ellis van Creveld). - Correct
Answers -hypodontia, conical crowns, enamel hypoplasia, short stature, lack of
maxillary sulcus, premature teeth
Describe features of Incontinentia pigmenti - Correct Answers -hypodontia, conical
crowns, delayed eruption, premature teeth, cleft lip/palate, blistering of the skin,
hyperpigmentation
, Describe features of Rieger syndrome. - Correct Answers -Hypodontia, midface
hypoplasia, delayed eruption, short stature, eye malformation
Describe features of Seckel syndrome - Correct Answers -hypodontia, microcephaly,
midface hypoplasia, dwarfism, large eyes
Describe features of Williams Syndrome. - Correct Answers -Hypodontia, prominent
lips, microdontia, enamel hypoplasia, elflike facial appearance, happy demeanor
Is gemination more common in the primary or permanent dentition? - Correct Answers -
Primary
Describe twinning. - Correct Answers -Complete cleavage of a single tooth bud which
results in a supernumerary mirror image tooth.
What is the cause of taurodontism? - Correct Answers -failure of normal invagination of
Hertwig's epithelial root sheath
Name 6 diseases associated with taurodontism. - Correct Answers -Klinefelter
syndrome, tricho-dento-osseous syndrome, Mohr syndrome (aka orofaciodigital
syndrome II), ectodermal dysplasia, Down syndrome, amelogenesis imperfecta type IV
Describe the features of Klinefelter syndrome. - Correct Answers -taurodontism, small
cranial dimension, bimaxillary prognathism, male with extra X chromosome,
gynecomastia
Describe the features of tricho-dento-osseous syndrome. - Correct Answers -
Dolichocephalic with frontal bossing, taurodontism, delayed eruption, kinky or coarse
hair at birth, enamel hypoplasia, AI+taurodontism+nail and hair defects
Describe the features of Mohr syndrome. - Correct Answers -Lobed tongue, upper
lip/midline cleft, oligodontia, polydactyly
The most common type of amelogenesis imperfecta is : - Correct Answers -type I-
hypoplastic
What type of amelogenesis imperfecta is associated with taurodontism? - Correct
Answers -AI type IV with taurodontism (hypomaturation-hypoplastic)
Dentinogenesis imperfecta is a defect of what structure? - Correct Answers -Predentin
matrix (normal mantle dentin)
Which type of Dentinogenesis imperfecta occurs along with osteogenesis imperfecta? -
Correct Answers -Shields Type I
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
In infants, what is the best indicator for future caries? - Correct Answers -plaque on
maxillary anteriors
A pea-sized amount of fluoridated toothpaste is appropriate for what age range? -
Correct Answers -age 2-5
In a child under the age of 3, what factors automatically assign that child an S-ECC
status? - Correct Answers -White spot lesions, any carious lesion on a smooth surface
Name 7 factors that assign a high caries risk to a 0-5 year old. - Correct Answers -1)
Mother/caregiver with active caries; 2) Parent/caregiver low SES; 3) greater than three
between-meal sugar-containing snacks or beverages per day; 4) Child is put to bed with
a bottle containing natural or added sugar; 5) child has greater than 1 DMFS; 6) Child
has active white spot lesions or enamel defects; 7) Child has elevated MS levels
Name 3 factors that assign a moderate caries risk to a 0-5 year old. - Correct Answers -
1) Child has special health care needs; 2) Child is a recent immigrant; 3) Child has
plaque on teeth
Name the 4 caries protective factors. - Correct Answers -1) Child receives optimally-
fluoridated drinking water or fluoride supplements; 2) Child has teeth brushed daily with
fluoridated toothpaste; 3) Child receives topical fluoride from health professional; 4)
Child has dental home/regular dental care
Neural crest cells develop from ________. Name some structures that neural crests are
responsible for forming. - Correct Answers -1) ectoderm on the lateral border of the
neural plate. 2) bone, cartilage, dentin, dermis (not enamel)
Dental lamina begins formation at _______ embryonic age. - Correct Answers -6 weeks
From what structure does dental lamina form? - Correct Answers -basal layer of oral
epithelium
What structures form from dental lamina? - Correct Answers -tooth buds
,At what age does the permanent first molar begin initiation? At what age does the
permanent 2nd molar begin initiation? - Correct Answers -1) 16 weeks in utero 2) 4-5
years
Name the components of the tooth bud. - Correct Answers -enamel organ, dental
papilla, dental sac
Name the components of the enamel organ. - Correct Answers -Inner enamel
epithelium (concavity), outer enamel epithelium (convexity), stellate reticulum (center)
The dental papilla forms from ________. - Correct Answers -neural crest
Name the stages of tooth development in order. - Correct Answers -Bud stage, cap
stage, bell stage, advanced bell stage
Hertwig's epithelial root sheath is composed of what structures? - Correct Answers -
inner and outer enamel epithelia (not stratum intermedium or stellate reticulum)
The remnants of Hertwig's root sheath persist as _____. - Correct Answers -rests of
Malassez
Problems in the initiation stage of tooth development lead to anomalies of __________.
- Correct Answers -Tooth number
Problems in the proliferation stage of tooth development lead to anomalies of
__________. - Correct Answers -size, proportion, number, twinning
Problems in the histodifferentiation stage of tooth development lead to anomalies of
____________. - Correct Answers -anomalies of enamel and dentin (enamel
hypoplasia, AI, DI, DD)
Problems in the morphodifferentiation stage of tooth development lead to
_____________. - Correct Answers -Anomalies of enamel, dentin, and cementum
Is hyperdontia more common in males or females? - Correct Answers -males (2:1)
Is hyperdontia more common in primary or permanent dentition? - Correct Answers -
permanent dentition (5:1)
Is hyperdontia more common in the maxilla or the mandible? - Correct Answers -maxilla
(9:1)
Name the most common teeth affected by hypodontia in order of frequency. - Correct
Answers -3rd molars, mandibular 2nd premolar, maxillary lateral, maxillary 2nd
premolar
,Name (9) syndromes associated with hyperdontia. - Correct Answers -Apert's,
cleidocranial dysplasia, Gardner syndrome, Crouzon syndrome, Sturge-Weber
syndrome, Orofaciodigital syndrome I, Hallerman-Strieff syndrome, cleft lip and palate,
Down syndrome
Describe features of Apert Syndrome. - Correct Answers -supernumerary teeth, cleft
palate, delayed/ectopic eruption, shovel shaped incisors, hypoplastic midface,
syndactyly, craniosynostosis, hypertelorism, class III with anterior openbite, crowded
dentition
Describe features of cleidocranial dysplasia. - Correct Answers -supernumerary teeth,
delayed development/eruption, midface hypoplasia, enamel hypoplasia, missing
clavicle, craniosynostosis
Describe features of Gardner Syndrome - Correct Answers -supernumerary teeth,
osteomas of the jaw, delayed eruption, colonic polyps
Describe features of Crouzon syndrome. - Correct Answers -supernumerary teeth,
midface hypoplasia, inverted V shaped palate, craniosynostosis, exopthalamos
Describe features of Sturge-Weber syndrome - Correct Answers -port-wine stains which
follow the trigeminal nerve, supernumerary teeth, overgrowth of maxilla, ipsilateral
gyriform calcifications of cerebral cortex, 100% have seizures, hemiplegia, ocular
defects, bleeding and gingival hyperplasia, alveolar bone loss, pyogenic granulomas
Describe features of orofaciodigital syndrome. - Correct Answers -supernumerary teeth
and/or hypodontia; multiple or hyperplastic frenula, cleft tongue
Describe features of Hallerman-Strieff syndrome. - Correct Answers -supernumerary
teeth, mandibular hypoplasia, high palatal vault, delayed primary exfoliation, malar
hypoplasia
Describe features of ectodermal dysplasia. - Correct Answers -hypodontia, conical
crowns, deficient alveolar ridge
Describe features of achondroplasia - Correct Answers -hypodontia, short stature,
frontal bossing, midface hypoplasia
Describe features of chondroectodermal dysplasia (aka Ellis van Creveld). - Correct
Answers -hypodontia, conical crowns, enamel hypoplasia, short stature, lack of
maxillary sulcus, premature teeth
Describe features of Incontinentia pigmenti - Correct Answers -hypodontia, conical
crowns, delayed eruption, premature teeth, cleft lip/palate, blistering of the skin,
hyperpigmentation
, Describe features of Rieger syndrome. - Correct Answers -Hypodontia, midface
hypoplasia, delayed eruption, short stature, eye malformation
Describe features of Seckel syndrome - Correct Answers -hypodontia, microcephaly,
midface hypoplasia, dwarfism, large eyes
Describe features of Williams Syndrome. - Correct Answers -Hypodontia, prominent
lips, microdontia, enamel hypoplasia, elflike facial appearance, happy demeanor
Is gemination more common in the primary or permanent dentition? - Correct Answers -
Primary
Describe twinning. - Correct Answers -Complete cleavage of a single tooth bud which
results in a supernumerary mirror image tooth.
What is the cause of taurodontism? - Correct Answers -failure of normal invagination of
Hertwig's epithelial root sheath
Name 6 diseases associated with taurodontism. - Correct Answers -Klinefelter
syndrome, tricho-dento-osseous syndrome, Mohr syndrome (aka orofaciodigital
syndrome II), ectodermal dysplasia, Down syndrome, amelogenesis imperfecta type IV
Describe the features of Klinefelter syndrome. - Correct Answers -taurodontism, small
cranial dimension, bimaxillary prognathism, male with extra X chromosome,
gynecomastia
Describe the features of tricho-dento-osseous syndrome. - Correct Answers -
Dolichocephalic with frontal bossing, taurodontism, delayed eruption, kinky or coarse
hair at birth, enamel hypoplasia, AI+taurodontism+nail and hair defects
Describe the features of Mohr syndrome. - Correct Answers -Lobed tongue, upper
lip/midline cleft, oligodontia, polydactyly
The most common type of amelogenesis imperfecta is : - Correct Answers -type I-
hypoplastic
What type of amelogenesis imperfecta is associated with taurodontism? - Correct
Answers -AI type IV with taurodontism (hypomaturation-hypoplastic)
Dentinogenesis imperfecta is a defect of what structure? - Correct Answers -Predentin
matrix (normal mantle dentin)
Which type of Dentinogenesis imperfecta occurs along with osteogenesis imperfecta? -
Correct Answers -Shields Type I
