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RN Pharmacology A Relias (NEW UPDATED VERSION) LATEST ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS)-
GUARANTEED PASS A+ UPDATED GRADED A+
RN Pharmacology Questions –
Cardiovascular Drugs
1. A patient is taking spironolactone. Which electrolyte should be monitored?
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Calcium
D) Magnesium
Answer: B
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic; hyperkalemia is a risk.
2. Atenolol is prescribed. What is the nurse’s priority assessment?
A) Heart rate
B) Respiratory rate
C) Temperature
D) Urine output
Answer: A
Rationale: Beta-blockers can cause bradycardia; monitor pulse before administration.
3. Clopidogrel is given to a patient. The nurse should monitor for:
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Bleeding
C) Bradycardia
D) Constipation
Answer: B
Rationale: Clopidogrel inhibits platelet aggregation; bleeding risk is increased.
4. Hydralazine is prescribed. Which side effect is most common?
A) Headache and tachycardia
B) Bradycardia
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Constipation
Answer: A
Rationale: Hydralazine is a vasodilator causing reflex tachycardia and headaches.
5. Warfarin therapy requires monitoring of:
A) aPTT
B) INR
C) Platelets
2026 2027 GRADED A+
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D) Hemoglobin
Answer: B
Rationale: INR monitors warfarin efficacy; target range depends on indication.
6. A patient is on heparin IV. Which lab is most important?
A) INR
B) aPTT
C) PT
D) Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: aPTT monitors heparin therapy to prevent bleeding or clotting complications.
7. Amiodarone is prescribed for dysrhythmias. What should the nurse monitor?
A) Thyroid function
B) Liver function
C) ECG changes
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Amiodarone can cause thyroid, liver toxicity, and arrhythmias; monitor labs
and ECG.
8. Digoxin toxicity is increased by:
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypertension
D) Hypercalcemia
Answer: A
Rationale: Low potassium increases the risk of digoxin toxicity.
9. Nitroprusside IV requires monitoring:
A) BP continuously
B) Heart rate
C) Cyanide toxicity
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Nitroprusside can cause hypotension and cyanide toxicity; careful monitoring
is essential.
10. Furosemide administration teaching includes:
A) Take in the morning
B) Daily weight monitoring
C) Report dizziness
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Helps prevent nocturia, monitor fluid status, and identify hypotension.
Central Nervous System Drugs
11. Sertraline teaching should include:
A) May take 4–6 weeks for effect
2026 2027 GRADED A+
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B) Avoid alcohol
C) Monitor for serotonin syndrome
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: SSRIs take weeks to work and have multiple safety considerations.
12. Benzodiazepine withdrawal may cause:
A) Seizures
B) Hypertension
C) Tachycardia
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Abrupt cessation can cause severe withdrawal symptoms.
13. Carbamazepine therapeutic levels:
A) 4–12 mcg/mL
B) 10–20 mcg/mL
C) 50–100 mcg/mL
D) 0.5–2 mcg/mL
Answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring prevents toxicity and ensures efficacy.
14. Levetiracetam teaching includes:
A) Report mood changes
B) Take with or without food
C) Do not stop abruptly
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Prevents seizures and monitors CNS side effects.
15. Risperidone patient education:
A) Monitor weight
B) Watch for EPS
C) Take with food if GI upset
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Atypical antipsychotics can cause metabolic and neurological side effects.
16. Lithium levels should be checked:
A) 0.6–1.2 mEq/L
B) 1.5–2.5 mEq/L
C) 3–4 mEq/L
D) 0.2–0.5 mEq/L
Answer: A
Rationale: Therapeutic range prevents toxicity; monitor renal function and hydration.
17. Haloperidol teaching includes:
A) Monitor for tardive dyskinesia
B) Avoid abrupt cessation
C) Monitor BP for orthostatic hypotension
D) All of the above
2026 2027 GRADED A+
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Answer: D
Rationale: Antipsychotics have significant neurological and cardiovascular side effects.
18. Bupropion is used for:
A) Depression and smoking cessation
B) Anxiety
C) Parkinson’s
D) Hypertension
Answer: A
Rationale: NDRI antidepressant; lowers seizure threshold.
19. Dantrolene is used to treat:
A) Malignant hyperthermia
B) Parkinson’s disease
C) Depression
D) Seizures
Answer: A
Rationale: Muscle relaxant for life-threatening hypermetabolic crisis.
20. Phenytoin IV must be administered:
A) Slowly, diluted
B) Rapid push
C) Only IM
D) Undiluted IV
Answer: A
Rationale: Rapid administration can cause arrhythmias; dilute and give slowly.
Anti-infectives
21. Vancomycin trough levels should be monitored:
A) 10–20 mcg/mL
B) 5–10 mcg/mL
C) 20–30 mcg/mL
D) 1–5 mcg/mL
Answer: A
Rationale: Trough monitoring ensures efficacy and prevents nephrotoxicity.
22. Ceftriaxone patient teaching:
A) Complete full course
B) Report diarrhea or rash
C) Can be taken with food
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Prevents resistance and monitors for adverse effects.
23. Acyclovir IV requires:
A) Adequate hydration
B) Slow infusion
C) Monitor renal function
D) All of the above
2026 2027 GRADED A+
RN Pharmacology A Relias (NEW UPDATED VERSION) LATEST ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS)-
GUARANTEED PASS A+ UPDATED GRADED A+
RN Pharmacology Questions –
Cardiovascular Drugs
1. A patient is taking spironolactone. Which electrolyte should be monitored?
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Calcium
D) Magnesium
Answer: B
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic; hyperkalemia is a risk.
2. Atenolol is prescribed. What is the nurse’s priority assessment?
A) Heart rate
B) Respiratory rate
C) Temperature
D) Urine output
Answer: A
Rationale: Beta-blockers can cause bradycardia; monitor pulse before administration.
3. Clopidogrel is given to a patient. The nurse should monitor for:
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Bleeding
C) Bradycardia
D) Constipation
Answer: B
Rationale: Clopidogrel inhibits platelet aggregation; bleeding risk is increased.
4. Hydralazine is prescribed. Which side effect is most common?
A) Headache and tachycardia
B) Bradycardia
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Constipation
Answer: A
Rationale: Hydralazine is a vasodilator causing reflex tachycardia and headaches.
5. Warfarin therapy requires monitoring of:
A) aPTT
B) INR
C) Platelets
2026 2027 GRADED A+
,2|Page
D) Hemoglobin
Answer: B
Rationale: INR monitors warfarin efficacy; target range depends on indication.
6. A patient is on heparin IV. Which lab is most important?
A) INR
B) aPTT
C) PT
D) Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: aPTT monitors heparin therapy to prevent bleeding or clotting complications.
7. Amiodarone is prescribed for dysrhythmias. What should the nurse monitor?
A) Thyroid function
B) Liver function
C) ECG changes
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Amiodarone can cause thyroid, liver toxicity, and arrhythmias; monitor labs
and ECG.
8. Digoxin toxicity is increased by:
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypertension
D) Hypercalcemia
Answer: A
Rationale: Low potassium increases the risk of digoxin toxicity.
9. Nitroprusside IV requires monitoring:
A) BP continuously
B) Heart rate
C) Cyanide toxicity
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Nitroprusside can cause hypotension and cyanide toxicity; careful monitoring
is essential.
10. Furosemide administration teaching includes:
A) Take in the morning
B) Daily weight monitoring
C) Report dizziness
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Helps prevent nocturia, monitor fluid status, and identify hypotension.
Central Nervous System Drugs
11. Sertraline teaching should include:
A) May take 4–6 weeks for effect
2026 2027 GRADED A+
,3|Page
B) Avoid alcohol
C) Monitor for serotonin syndrome
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: SSRIs take weeks to work and have multiple safety considerations.
12. Benzodiazepine withdrawal may cause:
A) Seizures
B) Hypertension
C) Tachycardia
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Abrupt cessation can cause severe withdrawal symptoms.
13. Carbamazepine therapeutic levels:
A) 4–12 mcg/mL
B) 10–20 mcg/mL
C) 50–100 mcg/mL
D) 0.5–2 mcg/mL
Answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring prevents toxicity and ensures efficacy.
14. Levetiracetam teaching includes:
A) Report mood changes
B) Take with or without food
C) Do not stop abruptly
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Prevents seizures and monitors CNS side effects.
15. Risperidone patient education:
A) Monitor weight
B) Watch for EPS
C) Take with food if GI upset
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Atypical antipsychotics can cause metabolic and neurological side effects.
16. Lithium levels should be checked:
A) 0.6–1.2 mEq/L
B) 1.5–2.5 mEq/L
C) 3–4 mEq/L
D) 0.2–0.5 mEq/L
Answer: A
Rationale: Therapeutic range prevents toxicity; monitor renal function and hydration.
17. Haloperidol teaching includes:
A) Monitor for tardive dyskinesia
B) Avoid abrupt cessation
C) Monitor BP for orthostatic hypotension
D) All of the above
2026 2027 GRADED A+
, 4|Page
Answer: D
Rationale: Antipsychotics have significant neurological and cardiovascular side effects.
18. Bupropion is used for:
A) Depression and smoking cessation
B) Anxiety
C) Parkinson’s
D) Hypertension
Answer: A
Rationale: NDRI antidepressant; lowers seizure threshold.
19. Dantrolene is used to treat:
A) Malignant hyperthermia
B) Parkinson’s disease
C) Depression
D) Seizures
Answer: A
Rationale: Muscle relaxant for life-threatening hypermetabolic crisis.
20. Phenytoin IV must be administered:
A) Slowly, diluted
B) Rapid push
C) Only IM
D) Undiluted IV
Answer: A
Rationale: Rapid administration can cause arrhythmias; dilute and give slowly.
Anti-infectives
21. Vancomycin trough levels should be monitored:
A) 10–20 mcg/mL
B) 5–10 mcg/mL
C) 20–30 mcg/mL
D) 1–5 mcg/mL
Answer: A
Rationale: Trough monitoring ensures efficacy and prevents nephrotoxicity.
22. Ceftriaxone patient teaching:
A) Complete full course
B) Report diarrhea or rash
C) Can be taken with food
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Prevents resistance and monitors for adverse effects.
23. Acyclovir IV requires:
A) Adequate hydration
B) Slow infusion
C) Monitor renal function
D) All of the above
2026 2027 GRADED A+
