NRNP 6531 Midterm Practice Exam 2026 – Verified Questions, Answers & Detailed Rationales

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NRNP 6531 MIDTERM NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM 2026 LATEST
UPDATED ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH 100% RATED CORRECT
ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED GET A+



NRNP 6531 – MIDTERM PRACTICE
QUESTIONS

1. A 62-year-old male has BP readings averaging 150/96 mmHg on three separate visits. He
has no diabetes or CKD. Best initial management?
A. Start ACE inhibitor
B. Lifestyle modification and reassess
C. Beta blocker
D. Combination therapy
Answer: B
2. Which symptom is most specific for left-sided heart failure?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Hepatomegaly
C. Pulmonary crackles
D. Ascites
Answer: C
3. Which lab is most useful for assessing heart failure severity?
A. Troponin
B. BNP
C. CK-MB
D. Lipid panel
Answer: B
4. Stable angina is caused by:
A. Acute plaque rupture
B. Coronary vasospasm
C. Fixed atherosclerotic narrowing
D. Valvular disease
Answer: C
5. First-line medication for chronic stable angina:
A. Digoxin
B. Nitrates
C. Amiodarone
D. ACE inhibitor
Answer: B


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6. Which condition places a patient at highest risk for stroke?
A. Sinus bradycardia
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. First-degree AV block
D. PVCs
Answer: B
7. Orthostatic hypotension is diagnosed when systolic BP drops by at least:
A. 10 mmHg
B. 15 mmHg
C. 20 mmHg
D. 30 mmHg
Answer: C
8. Which antihypertensive is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Methyldopa
B. Labetalol
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Nifedipine
Answer: C
9. The most common cause of secondary hypertension is:
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Renal disease
C. Thyroid dysfunction
D. Cushing syndrome
Answer: B
10. A widened pulse pressure is most commonly seen in:
A. Aortic stenosis
B. Aortic regurgitation
C. Mitral stenosis
D. Mitral valve prolapse
Answer: B




Respiratory Disorders (Q11–20)
11. The GOLD criteria classify severity of:
A. Asthma
B. COPD
C. Pneumonia
D. Pulmonary embolism
Answer: B
12. Which feature differentiates asthma from COPD?
A. Smoking history
B. Reversibility of airflow obstruction
C. Chronic cough



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D. Barrel chest
Answer: B
13. First-line treatment for mild intermittent asthma:
A. Inhaled corticosteroid
B. LABA
C. Short-acting beta agonist
D. Leukotriene inhibitor
Answer: C
14. A patient with emphysema typically presents with:
A. Productive cough
B. Blue bloater appearance
C. Pursed-lip breathing
D. Frequent infections
Answer: C
15. Sudden dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and tachycardia suggest:
A. Pneumonia
B. CHF
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Asthma
Answer: C
16. Which test confirms COPD diagnosis?
A. Chest X-ray
B. CT scan
C. Spirometry
D. ABG
Answer: C
17. Crackles that do not clear with coughing indicate:
A. Bronchitis
B. CHF
C. Asthma
D. COPD
Answer: B
18. Obstructive sleep apnea increases risk for:
A. Hypotension
B. Bradycardia
C. Hypertension
D. Hypoglycemia
Answer: C
19. Bacterial pneumonia is most associated with:
A. Dry cough
B. Clear sputum
C. Rust-colored sputum
D. Wheezing
Answer: C
20. Smoking cessation counseling should include:
A. Only pharmacotherapy



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B. Behavioral support and medications
C. Scare tactics
D. No follow-up
Answer: B




Endocrine Disorders (Q21–30)
21. A fasting glucose of 128 mg/dL on two occasions indicates:
A. Prediabetes
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Stress response
D. Normal
Answer: B
22. First-line medication for Type 2 diabetes:
A. Insulin
B. Metformin
C. Sulfonylurea
D. GLP-1 agonist
Answer: B
23. Most sensitive test for thyroid dysfunction:
A. T3
B. T4
C. TSH
D. Thyroid antibodies
Answer: C
24. Symptoms of hypothyroidism include:
A. Heat intolerance
B. Weight loss
C. Bradycardia
D. Diarrhea
Answer: C
25. Graves disease is caused by:
A. Destruction of thyroid tissue
B. TSH receptor stimulation
C. Iodine deficiency
D. Pituitary failure
Answer: B
26. Diabetic neuropathy is caused by:
A. Acute hypoglycemia
B. Chronic hyperglycemia
C. Insulin excess
D. Autoimmune damage
Answer: B



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