NURSE EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED
AND DETAILED ANSWERS | GRADED A+ | LATEST
2026/2027 UPDATE.
CDDN Exam – Questions 1–50
1. Which of the following is the most common cause of developmental
disabilities in children? A) Genetic syndromes
B) Prenatal infections
C) Premature birth
D) Traumatic brain injury
Answer: A) Genetic syndromes
Rationale: Genetic syndromes, such as Down syndrome and Fragile X
syndrome, are leading causes of developmental disabilities. Prenatal
infections and premature birth contribute but are less frequent.
2. When caring for a patient with autism spectrum disorder, which strategy
is most effective in reducing anxiety? A) Providing a highly stimulating
environment
B) Using clear, concise instructions and routines
C) Ignoring repetitive behaviors
D) Rapidly changing activities
Answer: B) Using clear, concise instructions and routines
Rationale: Predictable routines and clear instructions help patients with
autism manage anxiety.
3. Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient with intellectual
disability who demonstrates aggressive behavior?
A) Immediate physical restraint
B) Verbal de-escalation and calm communication
C) Ignoring the behavior
D) Punitive measures
Answer: B) Verbal de-escalation and calm communication
,Rationale: Calm communication and de-escalation are first-line approaches.
Restraints are only for immediate danger.
5. A nurse observes that a patient with cerebral palsy has increased muscle
spasticity. Which intervention is appropriate?
A) Encourage prolonged bed rest
B) Perform passive range-of-motion exercises
C) Avoid physical activity
D) Apply ice packs to limbs
Answer: B) Perform passive range-of-motion exercises
Rationale: Passive exercises maintain joint mobility and reduce contractures.
6. Which of the following medications is commonly used to manage
spasticity in patients with cerebral palsy?
A) Diazepam
B) Furosemide
C) Metformin
D) Albuterol
Answer: A) Diazepam
Rationale: Diazepam is a muscle relaxant that reduces spasticity. The others
are not indicated for this purpose.
7. In assessing a patient with Down syndrome, which physical feature is
commonly observed?
A) Long limbs and narrow eyes
B) Short stature, epicanthal folds, and hypotonia
C) Tall stature and hypertonia
D) Microcephaly with limb hypermobility
Answer: B) Short stature, epicanthal folds, and hypotonia
Rationale: These are classic physical features associated with Down
syndrome.
8. Which intervention best supports communication for a nonverbal
patient with developmental disabilities?
A) Use complex medical terminology
B) Provide communication boards or picture exchange systems
C) Speak faster to encourage response
D) Avoid eye contact
,Answer: B) Provide communication boards or picture exchange systems
Rationale: AAC (augmentative and alternative communication) supports
nonverbal patients’ communication.
9. When planning care for a patient with Fragile X syndrome, the nurse
should consider that:
A) Aggressive behavior is rare
B) Anxiety and sensory sensitivities are common
C) Intellectual disability does not occur
D) Physical abnormalities are always absent
Answer: B) Anxiety and sensory sensitivities are common
Rationale: Fragile X syndrome often presents with behavioral challenges,
anxiety, and sensory processing difficulties.
10. Which of the following is the most effective strategy for preventing
aspiration in a patient with severe cerebral palsy? A) Feeding quickly
to reduce mealtime length
B) Upright positioning and small, controlled bites
C) Encouraging rapid swallowing
D) Avoiding all solid foods
Answer: B) Upright positioning and small, controlled bites
Rationale: Proper positioning and slow feeding reduce aspiration risk.
11. The nurse is caring for a patient with intellectual disability who refuses
medication. What is the best approach?
A) Force the medication
B) Educate the patient and use supportive techniques
C) Ignore the refusal
D) Punish the patient
Answer: B) Educate the patient and use supportive techniques
Rationale: Patients with intellectual disabilities respond better to education,
explanation, and support.
12. Which condition is a risk factor for the development of developmental
disabilities in preterm infants?
A) Full-term birth
B) Neonatal hypoxia
C) Exclusive breastfeeding
D) Normal Apgar score
Answer: B) Neonatal hypoxia
, Rationale: Oxygen deprivation during birth can cause brain injury leading to
developmental delays.
13. Which of the following is an important consideration when
administering medications to a patient with developmental disabilities?
A) Patients always understand complex instructions
B) Assess comprehension and provide clear, simple explanations
C) Never involve caregivers
D) Ignore potential side effects
Answer: B) Assess comprehension and provide clear, simple explanations
Rationale: Simplified communication ensures safe medication
administration.
4. What is the primary purpose of an Individualized Education Program
(IEP) for a child with developmental disabilities?
A) To provide a diagnosis
B) To ensure individualized support and educational goals
C) To limit parental involvement
D) To prescribe medication
Answer: B) To ensure individualized support and educational goals
Rationale: IEPs outline tailored educational strategies and goals for children
with developmental disabilities.
14. In patients with developmental disabilities, which intervention helps
reduce challenging behaviors?
A) Ignoring routines
B) Establishing consistent daily routines
C) Using punishment frequently
D) Randomly changing environments
Answer: B) Establishing consistent daily routines
Rationale: Consistency reduces anxiety and behavioral outbursts.
15. Which behavior is characteristic of autism spectrum disorder?
A) Strong eye contact and social reciprocity
B) Repetitive movements and difficulty with social interaction
C) Delayed growth only
D) No need for routine