INTRODUCTION TO CLINICAL MEDICINE
8TH EDITION
AUTHOR(S)GARY D. HAMMER; STEPHEN J.
MCPHEE
TEST BANK
1)
Reference: Ch. 1 — Introduction — Pathophysiology as
disordered physiology and clinical presentation
Stem: A 56-year-old man presents with progressive exertional
dyspnea over 6 months, ankle swelling, and early satiety. Exam
shows jugular venous distention and hepatomegaly. Laboratory
tests reveal low serum albumin and mild normocytic anemia.
Which pathophysiologic concept from the introduction best
explains how a focal cardiac pump failure produces these
multisystem findings?
,A. Loss of organ reserve leading to decompensation.
B. Single-gene mutation producing systemic metabolic
derangements.
C. Primary infectious invasion of multiple organs.
D. Autoimmune-mediated widespread endothelial injury.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale — Correct (A): The introduction frames disease as
disordered physiology; focal organ dysfunction (cardiac pump
failure) reduces organ reserve and triggers compensatory and
secondary systemic effects (venous congestion causing
hepatomegaly, hypoalbuminemia from hepatic congestive
dysfunction). This mechanism links localized
structural/functional failure to multisystem manifestations.
(Ch.1 concepts)
Rationale — Incorrect:
B: Single-gene mutations produce inherited metabolic diseases,
not typical late-onset congestive findings.
C: Infectious invasion would show inflammatory/fever signs and
pathogen-specific features rather than chronic congestive
manifestations.
D: Autoimmune endothelial injury can be systemic but would
more likely present with vasculitic signs and lab markers of
inflammation.
Teaching Point: Local organ failure produces systemic effects via
loss of physiologic reserve and compensatory mechanisms.
,Hammer, G. D., & McPhee, S. J. (2025). Pathophysiology of
Disease (8th ed.). Chapter 1. AccessMedicine
2)
Reference: Ch. 1 — Introduction — Homeostasis and feedback
mechanisms
Stem: A 28-year-old woman with anorexia and prolonged
vomiting develops orthostatic hypotension and muscle cramps.
Her labs show metabolic alkalosis (elevated bicarbonate) and
low serum chloride. Which pathophysiologic feedback
mechanism best accounts for development of hypokalemia in
this setting?
A. Increased aldosterone secretion due to intravascular volume
depletion.
B. Decreased antidiuretic hormone due to hypernatremia.
C. Reduced renin release from renal ischemia.
D. Cytokine-mediated redistribution of potassium into cells.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale — Correct (A): The introduction emphasizes
homeostatic feedback. Volume depletion from vomiting
activates the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone axis, increasing
aldosterone-mediated distal nephron potassium excretion,
producing hypokalemia. This links a physiologic compensatory
response to electrolyte derangement. (Ch.1 concepts)
, Rationale — Incorrect:
B: ADH changes relate to water/electrolyte balance but
hypernatremia is not the core mechanism for hypokalemia
here.
C: Renal ischemia increases renin (not reduces), which would
raise aldosterone.
D: Cytokine-driven intracellular shifts (e.g., insulin) are not the
primary mechanism after vomiting-induced volume loss.
Teaching Point: Volume-depletion activates RAAS; aldosterone
increases renal K⁺ loss causing hypokalemia.
Hammer, G. D., & McPhee, S. J. (2025). Pathophysiology of
Disease (8th ed.). Chapter 1. AccessMedicine
3)
Reference: Ch. 1 — Introduction — Acute vs chronic disease
and natural history
Stem: A 63-year-old current smoker reports gradual cough and
weight loss for 9 months. Chest imaging reveals a 4-cm lung
mass; biopsy confirms malignancy. Which statement best
captures the pathophysiologic importance of distinguishing
acute from chronic processes when predicting symptoms and
complications?
A. Chronic processes allow time for compensatory remodeling
and systemic paraneoplastic phenomena.
B. Acute processes always cause more systemic manifestations
than chronic ones.