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Question 1 When you are assessing the internal structures of the eye, absence of a red reflex may indicate: a. Cataract or hemorrhage into the vitreous humor b. Acute iritis c. A normal finding in older adults d. Diabetes or long-standing hypertension Question 2 Which of the following...

REGIS NU650 Week 15 Final Exam Latest 2022 Question 1 When you are assessing the internal structures of the eye, absence of a red reflex may indicate: a. Cataract or hemorrhage into the vitreous humor b. Acute iritis c. A normal finding in older adults d. Diabetes or long-standi...

A patient is seen in the office for amenorrhea, for which you obtain a urine pregnancy test in the office that returns negative. You would document this finding in which of the following sections of the ecounter? A. HPI B. CC C. Subjective Data D. Objective Data A patient you are seeing for...

Order of Assessment ans: Inspection, Palpation, Percussion and Auscultation. EXCEPT with abdomen Comprehensive Health History ans: chief complaint, reason for visit, ROS, past medical and surgical history, social history and family history Pediatric Body measurements ans: length, height, weigh...

Directions:  Gather your textbook, PowerPoint slides, and other anticipated resources.  Prior to starting the exam, be sure to familiarize yourself with the following textbook content: Chapters 1, 2, 21, 5, 18, and 46. In addition, please review in-class and out-of-class discussions, artic...

Question 1 Mr. Buck has several family members who died from different cancers. He wants to know if Medicare covers cancer screening. What should you tell him? a. Medicare covers all screening tests that have been approved by the FDA on a frequency determined by the treating physician. b. Medicar...

• After completing an initial assessment of a patient, the nurse has charted that his respirations are eupneic and his pulse is 58 beats per minute. These types of data would be: a. Objective. • A patient tells the nurse that he is very nervous, is nauseated, and “feels hot.” These types o...

You are providing bag-mask ventilations to a patient in respiratory arrest. How often should you provide ventilations? A 45-year-old woman with a history of palpitations develops light headedness and palpitations. She has recieved adenosine 6 mg IV for the rhythm shown here, without conversion of...

Which of the following may cause primary respiratory alkalosis? Correct Answer: Fever A quadriplegic male is experiencing difficulty breathing and restlessness. His skin is warm and his urine is dark, yellow and cloudy. Vital signs are BP 86/68, P-128, R-24, temp 101.2 F (38degrees C). Which typ...

• The health care provider order reads "aspirate nasogastric feeding (NG) tuber every 4 hours and check pH of aspirate." The pH of the aspirate is 10. Which action should the nurse take? A) Hold the tube feeding and notify the provider B) Administer the tube feeding as scheduled C) Irrigate...

Which of the following may cause primary respiratory alkalosis? A. Fever B. Chest Wall Pain C. Vomiting D. Renal Failure {{Correct Ans- A. Fever A quadriplegic male is experiencing difficulty breathing and restlessness. His skin is flush and his urine is dark yellow and cloudy. Vital signs are...

A. Neurodevelopment Disorder B. Mood Disorder C. Metabolic Disorder ASD is characterized by: A. "Difficulties with reading, writing and math" B. "Difficulties in social interaction, communication and repetitive behaviors" C. "Difficulties with communication, acting out and academics" ...

Chest • Pneumothorax: air that suddenly enters the pleural space causing loss of negative pressure and reduction in vital capacity which can cause lung to collapse o Closed: air in the chest that has entered through a hole in the lung o Open: air in the chest that has entered through a hole in ...

1. A client with a pulmonary embolism may have which of the following interventions? a. IVC filter- catches blood clot and stops from moving to heart and lungs b. Embolectomy- surgical removal of emboli c. Chest tube placement d. Heparin drug therapy- anticoagulant e. Thoracotomy 2. An older a...

Contents 1 Organisation of the Body ........................................................................ 1 2 Cells and Tissues ..................................................................................... 7 2.1 Cells and Tissues ........................................................

In addition to you, the EMS system consists of the following components: - Paramedic, First Responder, EMT, Receiving Facility, Dispatcher Identify the appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) for body substance isolation (BSI). - 1) Pocket Mask, 2) Mask, 3) Face Shield Once the car...

When it is safe for you to approach a victim, you should attempt to determine the victim's responsiveness by ______. Answer- tapping and shouting What are the effects of shock? Answer- 1) Reduced oxygen to body tissues and organs, 2) Low body temperature due to restricted blood flow, 3) Re...

In addition to you, the EMS system consists of the following components: Correct Ans Paramedic, First Responder, EMT, Receiving Facility, Dispatcher Identify the appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) for body substance isolation (BSI). Correct Ans 1) Pocket Mask, 2) Mask, 3) Face Shie...

PEDIATRIC FIRST AID CPR - CHILD: 1 year to age of puberty - INFANT: less than 1 years of age - ADULT: who is an adolescent or older HEART ATTACK AND CARDIAC ARREST The heart attack and cardiac arrest are not the same - TERM HEART ATTACK: is often mistakenly used to describe cardiac arre...

Help is in your hand with mobile apps Red Cross apps provide you with the information to help you be prepared—whether it’s everyday safety tools, tips and preparedness information or what actions to take during a natural disaster or first aid emergency. • The Emergency App covers 35 severe w...

The nurse is aware that the age at which the posterior fontanelle closes is _____ months. a. 2 to 3 b. 3 to 6 c. 6 to 9 d. 9 to 12 - Answer ANS: A The posterior fontanelle closes between 2 and 3 months of age. Which stage of development is most unstable and challenging regarding developme...

Section I Basic Nursing 1 Unit 1 Foundations 1 CHAPTER 1 Student Nurse Skills for Success 2 CHAPTER 2 Holistic Care 4 CHAPTER 3 Nursing, History, Education, and Organizations 5 CHAPTER 4 Legal and Ethical Responsibilities 6 Unit 2 The Health Care Environment 9 CHAPTER 5 The Health Care Delive...

Pediatric Nursing The Critical Components of Nursing Care 2nd Edition Rudd Test BankChapter 1. Issues and Trends in Pediatric Nursing MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A nurse is reviewing changes in healthcare delivery and funding for pediatric populations. Which current trend in the pediatric setting ...

Chapter 1. Issues and Trends in Pediatric Nursing MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A nurse is reviewing changes in healthcare delivery and funding for pediatric populations. Which current trend in the pediatric setting should the nurse expect to find? a. Increased hospitalization of children b. Decreased ...

UNIT I: An Overview of Maternity and Pediatric Nursing Chapter 1: The Past, Present, and Future UNIT II: Maternal-Newborn Nursing and Women’s Health Chapter 2: Human Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology Chapter 3: Fetal Development Chapter 4: Prenatal Care and Adaptations to Pregnancy Chapter 5...

Pediatric Nursing The Critical Components of Nursing Care 2nd Edition Rudd Test Bank Chapter 1. Issues and Trends in Pediatric Nursing MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A nurse is reviewing changes in healthcare delivery and funding for pediatric populations. Which current trend in the pediatric setting...

Pediatric Nursing The Critical Components of Nursing Care 2nd Edition Rudd Test Bank Chapter 1. Issues and Trends in Pediatric Nursing MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A nurse is reviewing changes in healthcare delivery and funding for pediatric populations. Which current trend in the pediatric setting shou...

1. A patient chooses to have the certified nurse midwife (CNM) provide care during her pregnancy. What doesthe CNMs scope of practice include? a. Practice independent from medical supervision b. Comprehensive prenatal care c. Attendance at all deliveries d. Cesarean sections ANS: B The CNM...

uplA nurse is assessing a client who has a closed chest tube drainage system. The nurse notes constant bubbling in the water seal chamber. What actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply). Clamping the chest tube Changing the drainage system Assessing the system for an external air leak...

HESI Extra Credit Module 9 Exam 100 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS SATISFACTION GUARANTEED SUCCESS LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 GRADED A+

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Prometric CNA Test guide questions and answers graded A+ A female resident's husband has asked for some time alone with his wife in her room. What should the NA do? A. Let the husband visit but listen outside the door. B. Let husband visit and leave the door open. C. Tell husband not to dis...

Prometric CNA Practice questions and answers study guide rated 5 stars (latest updates 2023 correct answers) Which of the following is the nurse aide most likely to observe in a resident who has a low blood sugar? A. Shakiness or trembling B. Thirst and dry mouth C. Sweet breath odor D. I...

CNA Test Questions 2022-2023 A resident's family is moving away the best response is? - -"I understand you'll miss them. Tell me more about them?" Which of the following foods contains Vitamin D? - -Milk Which of the following terms is used to define when a resident becomes more confu...

MED SURG HESI EXAM QUESTIONS 2022-2023 WITH All Answers Verified Correct What instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan of a client who had a cataract extraction today? - Light housekeeping is permitted but avoid heavy lifting A male adult comes to the urgent care ...

BRAND NEW 2023 APEA 3P EXAM WITH 100% VERIFIED What would cause decrease in Digoxin levels - Antacids Taking Pyridium for UTI, what can Pyridium cause? - Hemolytic Anemia What can PCOS result in? - increased insulin levels, Androgens, hirsutism What is a hypertensive used in pregnancy...

ATI Capstone Pharmacology assessment 1 exam rated 5 stars a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving morphine, what assessment is priority - RR a nurse is assessing a client who has been using beclomethasone for 2 weeks to manage her asthma, what is the priority to report to the provid...

ATI NCLEX Pharmacology Assessment 1 questions and answers rated 5 stars A nurse is teaching a client who will start using transdermal fentanyl. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the teaching A. "I can use an electric ...

Pharmacology - Assessment 1 study guiud verified 100% Pharmacology - The study of the interaction of drugs with the body's biological system. Pharmaceutic phase - The breakdown and dissolution of medications so that they can be absorbed. Enteric coated medication - Meant to resist stomac...

VYC1 Module Quizzes questions and answers rated 5 stars Which activity is NOT part of the personal budgeting process? (M01) A) Defining goals B) Monitoring outcomes C) Increasing income D) Redefining goals - Answer: C Correct! Increasing income is not part of the budgeting process, a...

E(1000)=5000 represents the earnings if the entrepreneur invested 1000 - If the company proposes a weekly salary of $1500, then 1000 people will apply for the position - C(50)=69.50 would represent the trip - If the vendor sells 400 candy bars, there is a $240 profit - The employ...

Introduction to Relational Databases introduction to data - web developers are self taught. learning HTML and programming. the next step is database integration. databases out of hand - large databases can go crazy when badly designed, leading to poor performance and resulting in a whole...

ATLS Pretest questions and answers rated 5 stars with latest updates 2023 A 22-year-old man is hypotensive and tachycardic after a shotgun wound to the left shoulder. His blood pressure is initially 80/40 mm Hg. After initial fluid resuscitation his blood pressure increases to 122/84 mm Hg. His ...

ATLS Practice set questions and answers rated 5 stars with latest updates 2023 Definitive control of the airway is achieved by ____________ - Endotracheal intubation How do you treat hypothermia in the ED? - crystalloid fluids at 102.2 degrees F and warmed treatment area What does defin...

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The 3P examination is a competency-based exam that tests clinical knowledge in the three core courses: pathophysiology, pharmacotherapeutics, and physical assessment Table of Contents TEST BANK 1 APEA 3p EXAM SOLUTION VERSION 1 BLUEPRINT 2 APEA 3p EXAM SOLUTION VERSION 2 BLUEPRINT WITH ANSWERS...

NCOA Test #1 questions and answers correct updates 2023 graded A+(verified f exam revision) This document contains a great deal of expectations and serves as a foundational document for all EPME curricula. The statement above BEST identifies ________. a. Air Force Core Values b. The En...

NCOA DLC 2.0 Problem Solving Final Test 1 questions and answers verified 100& refers to the processes used to plan, monitor, and access one's understanding and performance. - Metacognition The key to metacognition is asking yourself _______ questions. - self-reflective Before you begin...

NCOA DLC 2.0 Problem Solving Final Test 1 questions and answers aiding in revision for your studies graded A+ refers to the processes used to plan, monitor, and access one's understanding and performance. - Metacognition The key to metacognition is asking yourself _______ questions. - ...

NCOA DL Quiz(questions and answers updated 2023) verified for your download Metacognition - refers to the processes used to plan, monitor, and assess one's understanding and performance. self-reflective - The key to metacognition is asking yourself _____ questions. summoning your prior...

NCOA Distance Learning Course - Test 1 Material graded A+ Employing Military Capabilities (Competency) - (Sub-competencies) a. Operational and Strategic Art b. Leverage Technology c. Unit, Air Force, Joint and Coalition Capabilities d. Non-Adversarial Crisis Response Enterprise Perspec...

NCOA DL Course Block 1 Questions and answers graded A+(verified download for exams revision) While speaking to his ALS class, SSgt Baldwin says, "This doesn't count toward course completion; however, you should prepare as if it did. It is a way for you to measure how well you understand the...

FACHE - Healthcare (Wk8&9 Study Questions and answers) latest 2023 updates Purpose of the Physician Organization - To recruit and retain physicians necessary to provide excellent care to the community 6 Functions of a Physician Organization - 1) Achieve excellent care 2) Credentialing and...

FACHE WK8 and 9 Healthcare Study Questions and answers graded A+ Name 3 functions of a physician organization? - 1) Improvement of clinical quality and cost expectation 2) Credentialing and privileging of physicians 3) Continuing education for physicians and other clinical professionals N...

Module 3: Mental Health Concepts questions and answers graded A+ The mother of a 3-year-old child tells the nurse that her child hit her doll after the mother scolded her for picking the neighbors' flowers. Which defense mechanism used by the child does the nurse identify in the mother's repo...

Senior Seminar - Module 3: Mental Health Concepts questions and answers verified 100% A young adult client says to the nurse, "All my friends are married and have children. I can't seem to meet anyone, and I know I'll never be happy until I meet someone I can care about enough to marry." Wh...

Module 3: Mental Health Concepts questions and answers rated 5 stars with 2023 updates the nurse in a mental health clinic is interviewing a client who was referred to the clinic by the client;s primary HCP. which finding indicates to the nurse that the client needs assistance to restore and ma...

MODULE 3: MENTAL HEALTH CONCEPTS questions and answers rated 5 stars (contains latest 2023 updates) The defense mechanism of displacement involves the discharge of intense feelings for one person onto a substitute person or object that is less threatening to satisfy an impulse. Projection invol...

Mental Health Exam 1 review of Module 3 study guide rated 5 stars ______________ is the branch of philosophy that addresses methods to determine if one's actions are right or wrong. - Ethics ______________ applies to these same principles when referring to concepts in medicine, nursing and ...

Mental Health concepts Module 3 study guide review test (complete 2023 updates) The Nursing Process - -The standards of practice for psychiatric nursing are written around the six steps of the nursing process. 1.Assessment. 2.Diagnosis. 3.Outcomes identification. 4.Planning 5.Imple...

"Alpha Phi Alpha" questions and answers well elaborated ( contains latest updates 2023) Julian Love - All eyes on Me Incorporation Date - April 3, 1914 What year did Alpha Phi Alpha become interracial? - 1945 What are the international chapter regions - Americas, Africa, Europe,...

Alpha Phi Alpha - Final Study exam questions and answers (latest updates 2023) When was the Fraternity officially founded? - Tuesday, Dec 4, 1906 Where was Alpha Phi Alpha Fraternity founded? - Cornell University, Ithaca, NY 14853 Who are the Regional Officers and what are their positions...

Alpha Phi Alpha study guide verified 100% to attain A+ grades First of All, Servants of All, We Shall transcend All - Motto Preamble - To promote a more perfect union among college men; to aid in and insist upon the personal progress of its members; to further brotherly love and a frater...

Alpha Phi Alpha Test 3 study guide questions and answers graded A+ 1. When was the Fraternity officially founded? - Tuesday, Dec 4, 1906 2. Where was Alpha Phi Alpha Fraternity founded? - Cornell University, Ithaca, NY 14853 Who are the current Regional Officers and what are their positio...

Alpha Phi Alpha study guide complete and verified 100% Founding Date - Tuesday, December 4th 1906 @ Cornell University in Ithaca, NY The Chapter I aspire to be apart of Their founding date Chapter seat their chapter key Charter members - Nu Chi Lambda Chapter May 2, 1981 Iowa City...

Alpha Phi Alpha Chapter 3 questions and answers verified 100% to aid exam revision What is the title of Chapter 3 of the history book? - The First Steps in Expansion With the foundations of fraternity organization and policy securely laid, the attention of the founders now turned to? - Exp...

Alpha Phi Alpha study guide exam questions with answers verified 100% Julian Love - All eyes on Me Incorporation Date - April 3, 1914 What year did Alpha Phi Alpha become interracial? - 1945 What are the international chapter regions - Americas, Africa, Europe, the Caribbean, an...

History of Alpha Phi Alpha Fraternity Incorporated questions and answers verified 100% Who were the first initiates? - Jewel Big Brother Eugene Kinckle Jones, Lemuel E. Graves, Gordon Jones On what day did the first initiation take place? - October 30, 1906 Where did the first initiation ...

APA: The origin of Alpha Phi Alpha study guide complete with latest 2023 updates The first fraternity ever - Phi Betta Kappa December 5th, 1776 at William and Mary college Williamsburg, Virginia. The original chapter became inactive in 1871 What was going on around the time APA was founded -...

Introduction to IT (PVEC) Pre-Assessment test questions and answers graded A+ What is the definition of information technology (IT)? - It is the technology used to create, maintain, and make information accessible. Which IT position has the responsibility of working with routers and switches...

C779 Pre Assessment exam questions and answers well ellaborated Which two actions should be used to address users with visual impairments? - Ensure that pages support screen-reader apps. Provide text descriptions for images. Which two tags are containers for other tags? - <head> <...

Assessment to Introduction to IT PVEC exam study guide (questions and answers with latest updates 2023) What is the definition of Information Technology? - It is the technology used to create, maintain, and make information accessible. Which IT position has the responsibility of working wit...

WGU Pathology Pre-Assessment test study guide questions and answers graded A+ Warm to touch - A patient's records indicate a diagnosis of a staph skin infection which caused a boil to develop on the patient's buttock region. Symptoms included red, swollen skin with pus. Which additional sym...

Pathophysiology WGU exam study guide verified 100% (contains latest updates 2023) Malara - Symptoms are fever and flulike illness, including shaking chills, headache, muscle aches, and malaise. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea may also occur. can cause anemia and jaundice because of the destruc...

WGU Pathophysiology exam study guide questions and answers verified 100% with latest updates 2023 Which types of tissue most often develop tumors? - Epithelial and connective tissues What are the following benign tumors? - Papilloma - A wart Lipoma - begins in the fatty tissue Myoma - Fi...

WGU Pathophysiology from the study guide elaborations verified 100% Anabolism - The phase of metabolism where simple substances are made into complex ones. Catabolism - Breakdown of substances into energy Epithelial and connective tissues - what tissues most often develop tumors Papill...

WGU Pathophysiology exam study guide verified 100% to aid in attaining A+ grades Which types of tissue most often develop tumors? - Epithelial and connective tissues Papilloma - A wart Lipoma - Begins in fatty tissue Myoma - Fibroid Chondroma - Benign tumor of cartilage cells...

WGU C107 Pre-Assessment test questions with answers rated 5 stars Which term describes the position of the fallopian tubes relative the uterus? - Lateral Which term describes the position of the fallopian tubes relative the uterus? - Lateral Which terms describe the position of the kidn...