ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exam 2025”2026 | Full 180-
Question And Correct Answers With Rationales Set with NGN
1. A client with heart failure reports shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. Which lab
value should the nurse assess first?
A. Hemoglobin
B. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
C. Serum creatinine
D. Blood glucose
Rationale: BNP is elevated in heart failure and reflects fluid overload, which correlates with the
client’s symptoms.
2. A nurse is caring for a patient receiving furosemide. Which electrolyte imbalance is most
concerning?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics like furosemide can cause potassium loss, increasing the risk of
hypokalemia and cardiac dysrhythmias.
3. A patient with COPD is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse notes an
oxygen saturation of 88%. What is the priority action?
A. Increase oxygen to 6 L/min
B. Reposition the client
C. Notify the provider immediately
D. Administer a bronchodilator
Rationale: Repositioning to high Fowler’s or sitting upright can improve ventilation. Oxygen
should be titrated carefully in COPD to avoid suppressing respiratory drive.
4. A nurse is teaching a patient about taking warfarin. Which statement indicates a need for
further teaching?
,A. “I will take my medication at the same time every day.”
B. “I can eat leafy greens without concern.”
C. “I will report any unusual bleeding or bruising.”
D. “I should avoid taking aspirin unless approved.”
Rationale: Leafy greens are high in vitamin K, which can decrease the effectiveness of warfarin.
5. A client is postoperative and reports pain 7/10. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer prescribed analgesic
B. Reassess in 30 minutes
C. Teach relaxation techniques
D. Notify the provider
Rationale: Pain is a priority; administering the prescribed analgesic addresses the client’s
immediate need.
6. A nurse is planning care for a client with type 2 diabetes. Which intervention is a priority?
A. Encourage foot care
B. Monitor blood glucose levels
C. Teach carbohydrate counting
D. Schedule regular eye exams
Rationale: Blood glucose monitoring is essential to prevent acute complications such as
hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia.
7. A nurse observes a patient with schizophrenia speaking to someone not present. Which
nursing diagnosis is most appropriate?
A. Risk for injury
B. Ineffective coping
C. Impaired social interaction
D. Disturbed thought processes
Rationale: Hallucinations can put the client at risk for self-harm or injury, making “Risk for
injury” the priority.
8. A patient is receiving morphine IV for pain. Which assessment requires immediate action?
,A. Respiratory rate 10/min
B. Pain 5/10
C. Heart rate 80 bpm
D. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
Rationale: Morphine can depress respirations; a rate below 12/min requires immediate
intervention.
9. A client has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which ECG change should the nurse expect?
A. ST-segment depression
B. Peaked T waves
C. Widened QRS
D. Flattened T waves
Rationale: Hyperkalemia causes tall, peaked T waves, which can progress to dangerous
arrhythmias.
10. A nurse is planning care for a child with dehydration. Which assessment finding is most
critical?
A. Dry mucous membranes
B. Capillary refill 5 seconds
C. Decreased urine output
D. Lethargy
Rationale: Delayed capillary refill indicates poor perfusion and potential hypovolemic shock,
requiring immediate attention.
11. A postpartum client reports heavy vaginal bleeding and dizziness. Which action should the
nurse take first?
A. Check vital signs
B. Assess lochia color
C. Notify provider
D. Encourage fluid intake
Rationale: Assessing vital signs identifies hemodynamic instability, which is critical in
postpartum hemorrhage.
, 12. A patient is prescribed digoxin. Which assessment is essential before administration?
A. Blood pressure
B. Apical pulse
C. Respiratory rate
D. Oxygen saturation
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia; the apical pulse must be ≥60 bpm in adults before
giving the medication.
13. A nurse is caring for a patient with a nasogastric tube. Which intervention is correct to
prevent aspiration?
A. Keep head of bed flat
B. Flush tube with water before feeding
C. Maintain head of bed ≥30 degrees
D. Administer feeding quickly
Rationale: Elevating the head of bed reduces the risk of aspiration during tube feeding.
14. Which action is appropriate for a patient with neutropenia?
A. Allow fresh flowers in the room
B. Restrict visitors with cold symptoms
C. Encourage raw fruits and vegetables
D. Provide immunizations
Rationale: Neutropenic patients are at high risk for infection; limiting exposure to pathogens is
essential.
15. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin glargine. Which statement is correct?
A. Give it at meal times
B. Can be mixed with regular insulin
C. Administer once daily at the same time
D. Use sliding scale only
Rationale: Insulin glargine is long-acting and should be given once daily at the same time; it
cannot be mixed with other insulins.
Question And Correct Answers With Rationales Set with NGN
1. A client with heart failure reports shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. Which lab
value should the nurse assess first?
A. Hemoglobin
B. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
C. Serum creatinine
D. Blood glucose
Rationale: BNP is elevated in heart failure and reflects fluid overload, which correlates with the
client’s symptoms.
2. A nurse is caring for a patient receiving furosemide. Which electrolyte imbalance is most
concerning?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics like furosemide can cause potassium loss, increasing the risk of
hypokalemia and cardiac dysrhythmias.
3. A patient with COPD is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse notes an
oxygen saturation of 88%. What is the priority action?
A. Increase oxygen to 6 L/min
B. Reposition the client
C. Notify the provider immediately
D. Administer a bronchodilator
Rationale: Repositioning to high Fowler’s or sitting upright can improve ventilation. Oxygen
should be titrated carefully in COPD to avoid suppressing respiratory drive.
4. A nurse is teaching a patient about taking warfarin. Which statement indicates a need for
further teaching?
,A. “I will take my medication at the same time every day.”
B. “I can eat leafy greens without concern.”
C. “I will report any unusual bleeding or bruising.”
D. “I should avoid taking aspirin unless approved.”
Rationale: Leafy greens are high in vitamin K, which can decrease the effectiveness of warfarin.
5. A client is postoperative and reports pain 7/10. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer prescribed analgesic
B. Reassess in 30 minutes
C. Teach relaxation techniques
D. Notify the provider
Rationale: Pain is a priority; administering the prescribed analgesic addresses the client’s
immediate need.
6. A nurse is planning care for a client with type 2 diabetes. Which intervention is a priority?
A. Encourage foot care
B. Monitor blood glucose levels
C. Teach carbohydrate counting
D. Schedule regular eye exams
Rationale: Blood glucose monitoring is essential to prevent acute complications such as
hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia.
7. A nurse observes a patient with schizophrenia speaking to someone not present. Which
nursing diagnosis is most appropriate?
A. Risk for injury
B. Ineffective coping
C. Impaired social interaction
D. Disturbed thought processes
Rationale: Hallucinations can put the client at risk for self-harm or injury, making “Risk for
injury” the priority.
8. A patient is receiving morphine IV for pain. Which assessment requires immediate action?
,A. Respiratory rate 10/min
B. Pain 5/10
C. Heart rate 80 bpm
D. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
Rationale: Morphine can depress respirations; a rate below 12/min requires immediate
intervention.
9. A client has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which ECG change should the nurse expect?
A. ST-segment depression
B. Peaked T waves
C. Widened QRS
D. Flattened T waves
Rationale: Hyperkalemia causes tall, peaked T waves, which can progress to dangerous
arrhythmias.
10. A nurse is planning care for a child with dehydration. Which assessment finding is most
critical?
A. Dry mucous membranes
B. Capillary refill 5 seconds
C. Decreased urine output
D. Lethargy
Rationale: Delayed capillary refill indicates poor perfusion and potential hypovolemic shock,
requiring immediate attention.
11. A postpartum client reports heavy vaginal bleeding and dizziness. Which action should the
nurse take first?
A. Check vital signs
B. Assess lochia color
C. Notify provider
D. Encourage fluid intake
Rationale: Assessing vital signs identifies hemodynamic instability, which is critical in
postpartum hemorrhage.
, 12. A patient is prescribed digoxin. Which assessment is essential before administration?
A. Blood pressure
B. Apical pulse
C. Respiratory rate
D. Oxygen saturation
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia; the apical pulse must be ≥60 bpm in adults before
giving the medication.
13. A nurse is caring for a patient with a nasogastric tube. Which intervention is correct to
prevent aspiration?
A. Keep head of bed flat
B. Flush tube with water before feeding
C. Maintain head of bed ≥30 degrees
D. Administer feeding quickly
Rationale: Elevating the head of bed reduces the risk of aspiration during tube feeding.
14. Which action is appropriate for a patient with neutropenia?
A. Allow fresh flowers in the room
B. Restrict visitors with cold symptoms
C. Encourage raw fruits and vegetables
D. Provide immunizations
Rationale: Neutropenic patients are at high risk for infection; limiting exposure to pathogens is
essential.
15. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin glargine. Which statement is correct?
A. Give it at meal times
B. Can be mixed with regular insulin
C. Administer once daily at the same time
D. Use sliding scale only
Rationale: Insulin glargine is long-acting and should be given once daily at the same time; it
cannot be mixed with other insulins.
