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NREMT Exam Prep Workbook with
Answers and Rationales 2025
Which of the following best defines a hematoma?
A) A scrape on the skin surface
B) A blood clot that travels to the lungs
C) A collection of blood within damaged tissue or a body cavity
D) A laceration caused by a blunt object
Rationale:
A hematoma refers to blood that has accumulated within damaged tissue or a body cavity due to
vessel rupture.
An abrasion (A) affects only the superficial skin layer.
An embolus (B) is a traveling clot.
A laceration (D) is a torn or jagged wound.
Which of the following best describes an abrasion?
A) A wound of the superficial layer of skin not penetrating the dermis
B) A tear in the mucosal lining of the esophagus
C) A deep cut involving capillaries
D) A puncture wound caused by a sharp object
Rationale:
An abrasion is a scrape or superficial injury limited to the outermost skin layer.
A tear in the esophagus (B) describes a Mallory-Weiss tear.
Option (C) and (D) involve deeper tissue injury.
Neonatal sepsis most often occurs in which age group?
A) Infants older than 6 months
B) Infants younger than 90 days
C) Children 1–2 years old
D) Premature infants only
Rationale:
Neonatal sepsis is a bloodstream infection seen in infants under 90 days old. Early onset occurs
in the first week; late onset occurs after one week to three months.
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Which condition results from severe damage to the myelin sheath in the pons, often caused
by rapid correction of hyponatremia?
A) Guillain-Barré syndrome
B) Multiple sclerosis
C) Central pontine myelinolysis
D) Wernicke’s encephalopathy
Rationale:
Central pontine myelinolysis involves demyelination in the pons, usually iatrogenic. The others
affect different parts of the nervous system.
Which of the following is true regarding a patient in respiratory distress who is gasping for
breath?
A) Let the patient explain her entire medical history before treatment
B) Interrupt her to clarify medication names
C) Advise the patient to focus on her current complaint
D) Delay oxygen until the full history is obtained
Rationale:
Excessive talking increases dyspnea. Focus on the current complaint and begin oxygen support
immediately.
What is the maximum suctioning time for a pediatric patient to prevent hypoxia?
A) 5 seconds
B) 10 seconds
C) 15 seconds
D) 20 seconds
Rationale:
Children should be suctioned for no longer than 10 seconds to avoid hypoxia. Adults = 15 sec;
infants = 5 sec.
Where may an internal cardiac pacemaker be implanted in particularly thin patients?
A) Left leg
B) Neck
C) Abdomen
D) Upper back
,100%
Rationale:
While most pacemakers are implanted in the chest (nondominant side), very thin patients may
have it placed in the abdomen.
A complication of improper hand placement during chest compressions includes:
A) Pneumothorax
B) Fractured ribs
C) Spinal injury
D) Brain hemorrhage
Rationale:
Incorrect CPR technique can fracture ribs or the sternum. Other listed injuries are less likely
from compressions alone.
Which symptom most strongly suggests a subdural hematoma?
A) Sudden paralysis
B) Chest pain
C) Altered mental status
D) Neck stiffness
Rationale:
Altered mental status and gradual neurological decline are hallmark signs of subdural hematoma
due to venous bleeding.
Which of the following is NOT a cause of hypovolemic shock?
A) Vomiting
B) Diarrhea
C) Hemorrhage
D) Severe infection
Rationale:
Severe infection leads to septic (distributive) shock, not hypovolemic. Hypovolemic results from
fluid or blood loss.
Which of the following best explains the process of inhalation?
A) Chest muscles relax, forcing air into the lungs
B) The diaphragm relaxes, increasing thoracic pressure
C) The diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract, increasing thoracic volume and
, 100%
creating negative pressure
D) Air is drawn in by alveolar constriction
Rationale:
Inhalation is an active process using energy to create negative intrathoracic pressure that draws
air in.
Snoring respirations during airway assessment indicate:
A) Fluid in the airway
B) Partial airway obstruction
C) Narrowing of the lower airways
D) Nasal congestion
Rationale:
Snoring indicates the upper airway is partially blocked, often by the tongue. Gurgling = fluids;
wheezing = bronchi.
Which of the following is NOT part of the upper airway?
A) Nasopharynx
B) Oropharynx
C) Trachea
D) Laryngopharynx
Rationale:
The trachea is part of the lower airway, while the other structures are part of the upper airway
above the vocal cords.
The proper location for performing abdominal thrusts on a choking child is:
A) Below the umbilicus
B) Above the umbilicus and below the sternum
C) Over the ribs
D) Directly on the sternum
Rationale:
Abdominal thrusts are performed above the navel and below the sternum to generate sufficient
airway pressure to expel the obstruction.
NREMT Exam Prep Workbook with
Answers and Rationales 2025
Which of the following best defines a hematoma?
A) A scrape on the skin surface
B) A blood clot that travels to the lungs
C) A collection of blood within damaged tissue or a body cavity
D) A laceration caused by a blunt object
Rationale:
A hematoma refers to blood that has accumulated within damaged tissue or a body cavity due to
vessel rupture.
An abrasion (A) affects only the superficial skin layer.
An embolus (B) is a traveling clot.
A laceration (D) is a torn or jagged wound.
Which of the following best describes an abrasion?
A) A wound of the superficial layer of skin not penetrating the dermis
B) A tear in the mucosal lining of the esophagus
C) A deep cut involving capillaries
D) A puncture wound caused by a sharp object
Rationale:
An abrasion is a scrape or superficial injury limited to the outermost skin layer.
A tear in the esophagus (B) describes a Mallory-Weiss tear.
Option (C) and (D) involve deeper tissue injury.
Neonatal sepsis most often occurs in which age group?
A) Infants older than 6 months
B) Infants younger than 90 days
C) Children 1–2 years old
D) Premature infants only
Rationale:
Neonatal sepsis is a bloodstream infection seen in infants under 90 days old. Early onset occurs
in the first week; late onset occurs after one week to three months.
,100%
Which condition results from severe damage to the myelin sheath in the pons, often caused
by rapid correction of hyponatremia?
A) Guillain-Barré syndrome
B) Multiple sclerosis
C) Central pontine myelinolysis
D) Wernicke’s encephalopathy
Rationale:
Central pontine myelinolysis involves demyelination in the pons, usually iatrogenic. The others
affect different parts of the nervous system.
Which of the following is true regarding a patient in respiratory distress who is gasping for
breath?
A) Let the patient explain her entire medical history before treatment
B) Interrupt her to clarify medication names
C) Advise the patient to focus on her current complaint
D) Delay oxygen until the full history is obtained
Rationale:
Excessive talking increases dyspnea. Focus on the current complaint and begin oxygen support
immediately.
What is the maximum suctioning time for a pediatric patient to prevent hypoxia?
A) 5 seconds
B) 10 seconds
C) 15 seconds
D) 20 seconds
Rationale:
Children should be suctioned for no longer than 10 seconds to avoid hypoxia. Adults = 15 sec;
infants = 5 sec.
Where may an internal cardiac pacemaker be implanted in particularly thin patients?
A) Left leg
B) Neck
C) Abdomen
D) Upper back
,100%
Rationale:
While most pacemakers are implanted in the chest (nondominant side), very thin patients may
have it placed in the abdomen.
A complication of improper hand placement during chest compressions includes:
A) Pneumothorax
B) Fractured ribs
C) Spinal injury
D) Brain hemorrhage
Rationale:
Incorrect CPR technique can fracture ribs or the sternum. Other listed injuries are less likely
from compressions alone.
Which symptom most strongly suggests a subdural hematoma?
A) Sudden paralysis
B) Chest pain
C) Altered mental status
D) Neck stiffness
Rationale:
Altered mental status and gradual neurological decline are hallmark signs of subdural hematoma
due to venous bleeding.
Which of the following is NOT a cause of hypovolemic shock?
A) Vomiting
B) Diarrhea
C) Hemorrhage
D) Severe infection
Rationale:
Severe infection leads to septic (distributive) shock, not hypovolemic. Hypovolemic results from
fluid or blood loss.
Which of the following best explains the process of inhalation?
A) Chest muscles relax, forcing air into the lungs
B) The diaphragm relaxes, increasing thoracic pressure
C) The diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract, increasing thoracic volume and
, 100%
creating negative pressure
D) Air is drawn in by alveolar constriction
Rationale:
Inhalation is an active process using energy to create negative intrathoracic pressure that draws
air in.
Snoring respirations during airway assessment indicate:
A) Fluid in the airway
B) Partial airway obstruction
C) Narrowing of the lower airways
D) Nasal congestion
Rationale:
Snoring indicates the upper airway is partially blocked, often by the tongue. Gurgling = fluids;
wheezing = bronchi.
Which of the following is NOT part of the upper airway?
A) Nasopharynx
B) Oropharynx
C) Trachea
D) Laryngopharynx
Rationale:
The trachea is part of the lower airway, while the other structures are part of the upper airway
above the vocal cords.
The proper location for performing abdominal thrusts on a choking child is:
A) Below the umbilicus
B) Above the umbilicus and below the sternum
C) Over the ribs
D) Directly on the sternum
Rationale:
Abdominal thrusts are performed above the navel and below the sternum to generate sufficient
airway pressure to expel the obstruction.
