ATI Prophecy RN Pharmacology A; Solved Latest 2025 95% Graded A+

Post Test Answers: 1. Which of the following medications may predispose the client to hearing loss? a. Aspirin--ototoxic b. Ampicillin c. Demerol d. Tylenol 2. The typical acute asthmatic attack is usually due to a combination of bronchial spasm, bronchial edema, and the presence of mucoid secretions in the bronchial lumen. The client with asthma was given mucomyst for which of the following reasons? a. To decrease the viscosity of secretions. b. To encourage the movement of the secretions in the bronchi. c. To stimulate the cough reflex. d. To dilate the bronchi. 3. Most asthmatic attacks respond to Epinephrine (Adrenalin) and it may be used as a therapeutic agent in the treatment of some allergic conditions because it: a. Improves cardiac output due to its positive inotropic effect. b. Acts as a hypertensive agent elevating BP. c. Dilates the bronchi. d. Antagonizes histamine. 4. A 78-year-old-client is taking a combination of 3 drugs: Lasix, Digoxin, and Isordil. Which of the following will be a desired, accumulative effect of the drugs? a. Constipation b. Weight loss = lasix (diuretic), digoxin (improves cardiac output), isordil (vasodilator) c. Postural hypotension d. Dizziness 5. Propanolol (Inderal) is used in the treatment of clients with a. heart block. b. asthma. c. hyperthyroid.—beta-blocker d. pulmonary edema. 6. Which of the following types of insulin is administered IV and during emergency? a. NPH b. Regular insulin c. PZI d. Combination of Regular and NPH 7. A manic-depressive client was placed on MAO inhibitor therapy. Which of the following foods will not be appropriate for the client? a. Fatty foods b. Coffee and tea c. Salty foods d. Vegetables 8. A client who is suffering from Osteoarthritis is given Naprosyn (Naproxen) and asked the nurse, ―How does this drug help me‖? The PN‘s appropriate response would be: a. ―It relieves your spasm.‖ b. ―It prevents demineralization of your bones.‖ c. ―It strengthens bone structures.‖ d. ―It relieves discomfort.‖ 9. A client is receiving Kayexalate (Sodium Polystyrene). Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the teaching given? a. ―My stool will be hard.‖ b. ―It will lessen the bacteria in my stomach.‖ c. ―It will decrease the serum K⁺ level in my blood.‖ d. ―It will decrease the Ca⁺⁺ level in my blood.‖ 10. All of these infants attended an infant care class with their mothers. Who among these babies can be given an oral polio vaccine? a. Annie, 5 months old, who finished her 120 ml formula an hour ago. b. Ronnie, 3 months old, who upon arriving to the clinic vomited 2X. c. Jocelyn, 6 months with oral thrush. d. Larry, 6 months, teething and drooling. 11. While the client is receiving Heparin therapy, which of these should be readily available? a. Vitamin K b. Protamine Sulfate c. Calcium Gluconate d. Magnesium Sulfate 12. Why Prednisone dosage is decreased gradually and not abruptly? a. Triggers the adrenal cortex to release ACTH to function normally. b. Costicosteroid suppression. c. Adrenal insufficiency. d. GI irritation. 13. Butch is started on Disulfiram (Antabuse) as a part of his treatment for alcoholism. He will continue this medication at home. Which of the following is contraindicated while Butch is taking Disulfiram? a. Elixir of Terpin Hydrate b. Coated Aspirin c. Bicarbonate of Soda d. Antihistamine 14. The nurse will anticipate which of the following effects when administering Epinephrine to the client who is experiencing anaphylactic shock? a. Brochoconstriction and positive inotropic effect. b. Bronchoconstriction and negative inotropic effect. c. Bronchodilation and positive inotropic effect. d. Bronchodilation and negative inotropic effect. 15. Which of the following is a potential side effect of Elavil? a. Dizziness upon getting up. b. Diuresis c. Potential addiction to the drug. d. Mental confusion 16. The nurse on the day shift receives a report which says, ―IV solution to be absorbed is 500 ml‖. The IV is infusing at 75 ml/hr. At the end of the shift at 3:30 PM, which of the following amount should be reported to the incoming shift as IV to be absorbed? a. 100 ml b. 300 ml c. 600 ml d. 900 ml 17. A client with schizophrenia, paranoid type, was placed on Haldol therapy due to her agitation. Which of the following is a manifestation of the side effect of major tranquilizer like Haldol? a. Unstable gait b. Extrapyrimidal side effects c. Constipation d. Nausea 18. The client who is taking Haldol is placed on drug therapy to counteract the side effects of Haldol, which drug is appropriate? a. Cogentin b. Antacid c. Vit. K d. Benadryl 19. To prevent the side effect of Decadron it must be taken with a. fluids. b. crackers. GI irritation c. empty stomach. d. high fiber diet. 20. Which of the following indicates that Cogentin is effective? a. The client has improved ability to concentrate. b. The client has decreased tremors. c. The client‘s BP is decreased. d. The client appears more relax and less agitated. 21. Which of the following is a side effect of Lasix? a. Increased urine output. b. Lightheadedness. c. K⁺ level 5.0 mEq/L. d. Urine specific gravity, 1.030. 22. The client is placed on Lithium Carbonate for his manic psychosis. When giving discharge teaching, the PN should include which of the following? a. Limit fluid intake to 1 L/day. b. Inform MD if client develops fatigue and drowsiness. c. Avoid foods such as aged cheese and wine. d. Avoid foods that are salty. 23. Which of the following complaints of the client would the PN suspect a side effect of Streptomycin? a. The client turns up the volume of the television. Streptomycin is ototoxic b. The client complains of burning sensation on urination. c. The client complains of nausea. d. The client complains of rashes on both hands. 24. A student nurse is assigned to an 8-month-old infant who is receiving Lanoxin that is being supplied by pharmacy in suspension form. Which of the following actions by the student nurse reflects the most accurate way of administering liquid (suspension) medication? a. Administer the medication using a teaspoon. b. Administer the medication using a dropper. c. Administer the medication using a medication cup. d. Administer the medication using a 3 ml syringe. 25. Yolanda is a 26-year-old client who is scheduled for breast biopsy. Her preop. Medications are Demerol 40 mg and Atropine 0.4 mg to be given in one syringe. The Demerol vial is labeled 100 mg/ml, the Atropine vial is labeled 1 mg/ml. The total volume of this injection should be: a. 0.5 ml b. 0.8 ml c. 1.1 ml d. 1.4 ml 26. Josh is to receive an antibiotic in 25 ml of IV fluids during a 40-inute period. The IV apparatus delivers 60 drops per ml. Josh should receive how many drops per minute? a. 17 to 18 25 ml X 60 gtt/ml/ 40 minutes = 37.5 b. 27 to 28 c. 37 to 38 d. 47 to 48 27. Adelle is to receive Phenergan 35 mg IM. The drug is available in ampules containing 50 mg in 1 ml of solution. Adelle should receive which of this amount of solution? a. 0.3 ml b. 0.7 ml c. 1.0 ml d. 1.4 ml 28. The doctor ordered Gravol IM 25 mg every 4 hours PRN for vomiting. The available dose is 100mg/2 ml. How much should the PN give to the client? a. 0.25 ml b. 0.50 ml c. 0.125 ml d. 5.0 ml 29. Cynthia came in with a diagnosis of mild dehydration. The physician orders IV 1 liter to be infused in 8 hours. The IV set delivers 10 drops/ml. The PN sets the IV pump at which of the following rate? a. 21 drops/min b. 30 drops/min c. 17 drops/min d. 25 drops/min 30. Which of the following medications will be most likely being ordered on the client with Atrial Fibrillation? a. Morphine Sulfate b. Digoxin c. Inderal d. Oxygen 31. A 67-year-old male client was admitted into a surgical unit because of syncope and cardiac arrhythmias. On physical assessment, the nurse noted petechiae on his trunk and bruising on his limbs. His gums are moist, spongy and bleeding easily. The PN suspects a deficiency in: a. Vitamin A b. Iodine c. Vitamin C makes iron available for formation of heme d. Iron 32. The drug of choice to treat the client‘s thyroid storm would be: a. Propanolol (Inderal) b. Nipedipine (Procardia) c. Verapamil (Calan) d. Quinidine (Quinidex) 33. A 70-year-old male is 5 feet, 9 ½‖ tall. He was admitted with an inferior MI. His condition is stable. He reports that he drinks a six-pack of beer every night. This man‘s history suggests that he is predisposed to a deficiency in a. Thiamine b. Vitamin B12 c. Zinc d. Vitamin C 34. Your client is receiving Decadron (Dexamethasone). Based on your knowledge of this drug, you would question the physician if a craniotomy client is not receiving which of the following medication? a. Sodium Bicarbonate b. Morphine Sulfate c. Zantac (Ranitidine) –decadron is a GI irritant d. Inderal 35. Which of the following is a side effect of Vasotec? a. Dizziness b. Headache c. Confusion d. Muscle weakness 36. The physician orders Silver Sulfadiazine (Silvadene) as a topical antibiotic treatment for a client with burn wounds. An advantage of this treatment is which of the following? a. Hardens eschar, allowing a faster recovery period. b. Is absorbed more rapidly than other topical agents. c. Acts against both gram negative and gram positive microorganisms. d. Increase granulocyte formation for efficient wound healing. 37. The international normalized ratio (INR) is used to measure the effectiveness of which of the following? a. Heparin b. Thrombolytics c. Warfarin d. Antiplatelets 38. Foods high in which vitamins can decrease the effectiveness of Warfarin (Coumadin)? a. C b. E c. K d. A 39. Who is at the greatest risk for complications while receiving anticoagulant therapy? a. A 45-year-old female with Acute MI. b. A 24-year-old patient who had prosthetic valve operation. c. An 80-year-old female with angina. d. A 70-year-old male with liver cirrhosis.—Liver produces clotting factors (prothrombin) 40. Morphine Sulfate is the medication of choice in treating a client with chest pain because the drug‘s desired effects would be a. Morphine‘s vasodilating properties will perfuse the heart muscles. b. Morphine‘s vasodilating effect will promote diuresis. c. Morphine decreases cardiac contractility. d. Morphine decreases cardiac output. 41. Which of the following is a legal aspect of administration of narcotics? a. Get another nurse to witness your narcotic waste. b. The drug must be signed out in the medication record after it was administered to the client. a. Return the left-over narcotic to the locked cabinet. b. Ask a trusted colleague to administer the drug for you. 42. The PCA (patient controlled analgesia) pump on Mr. Lou was discontinued today. The nurse who discards the remaining Morphine in the PCA pump will appropriately do which of the following? a. Discontinue the IV access and discard the remaining medication. b. Discontinue the IV access; ask another nurse to witness as you discard the remaining medication. c. Keep the PCA pump running until someone is ready as you discard the remaining medication. d. Return the remaining medication to the pharmacy. 43. Enteric Coated Aspirin is an important drug during and following MI attack. The PN would question which of the following order with Aspirin? a. Coumadin.—potentiates aspirin b. NTG SL. c. Digoxin. d. Lasix. 44. Twenty-four hours following burn accident, Johnny was given Morphine Sulfate to control his pain. Which of the following parameters should the PN utilize to accurately measure the client‘s response to drug therapy? a. How the client feels. b. Use the pain scale system—‗Scale of 1 of 10‖. c. Pay attention to non-verbal cues. d. Monitor the client‘s vital signs. 45. Mrs. Reno was admitted in the medical until for evaluation of her elevated blood pressure. The client has been on Aldomet therapy for the last 6 months. With Aldomet therapy her blood pressure is noted to have gone up from 180/100. An informed PN is aware that the client‘s response to the drug therapy is known as a. synergistic reaction. b. hypersusceptibility. c. potentiating effect. d. paradoxical reaction. 46. John is a 65-year-old male client with history of Rheumatic Heart Disease and was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Aortic Regurgitation. He has been fairly well until 2 weeks ago when he started to experience shortness of breath on exertion, fatigue, and inability to walk ten (10) steps on a ground level. He reports that he has to sleep with three (3) pillows to ease his breathing. Today, while waiting for the physician to evaluate him, he complained of severe excruciating chest pain. The PN who is assigned to him gave him NTG SL X3. Which of the following statement is correct about NTG administration? a. NTG SL must be taken in a sitting position. b. NTG must be taken when chest pain is experienced. c. The nurse should call the physician if the client is still in pain. d. NTG SL must be taken with sips of water. 47. A 72-year-old is admitted with cerebral arteriosclerosis, complicated by polycythemia vera, and heparin Q6H is prescribed. If the anticoagulant therapy is effective, the PN would expect: a. A PTT twice the normal value. b. An absence of ecchymotic areas. c. A decreased viscosity of the blood. d. A reduction of confusion and weakness. 48. To assess the effectiveness of a vasodilator administered to lower hypertension, the PN should take the client‘s pulse and blood pressure: a. Prior to administering the drug. b. Thirty minutes after giving the drug. c. Immediately after the patient gets out of bed. d. After the patient has been lying flat for 5 minutes. 49. Mr. Lou, 65 years old, with liver cirrhosis was ordered neomycin enema for which of the following goals? a. To lower the client‘s high BP. b. To improve the client‘s level of consciousness. c. To promote diarrhea. d. To correct constipation. 50. A male, Hispanic client with history of excessive ‗alcohol-drinking‘, was admitted with a diagnosis of recurrent pancreatitis. On admission, the client was complaining of unbearable pain. The PN knows that the appropriate narcotic analgesic for this client would be a. Demerol. b. Morphine. c. Tylenol #3. d. Ativan. 51. The client‘s heart rate drops to 48 while the physician was inserting the pacemaker. The PN who is assisting the physician will anticipate a drug order of which of the following: a. Digoxin b. Lidocaine c. Atropine—increases HR d. Pronestyl 52. Following Lasix therapy on a client with heart failure, the PN would assess which of the following reflecting the desired effect of the drug: a. Electrolyte imbalance. b. Vital signs. c. Diuresis. d. Hypotension. 53. A 35-year-old female client is receiving dosed of chemotherapy. The nurse who is assigned to the client knows that one of the following is an important nursing intervention: a. Chemotherapy is given IV push. b. The client is usually NPO for 12 hours post chemotherapy to prevent vomiting. c. Use sterile gloves when administering the chemotherapy drugs. d. Administer antiemetic 30 minutes prior to the administration of the drug. 54. Following Nitroglycerin patch application, an expected outcome experienced by the client would be one of the following: a. Elevated blood pressure b. Tachycardia c. Tingling sensation d. Increased urine output—NTG is a vasodilator 55. A client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) to relieve edema. The PN should monitor the client for evidence of a. negative nitrogen balance. b. excessive retention of sodium ions. c. excessive loss of potassium ions. d. elevation of the urine-specific gravity. dehydration