NR 511 Final Exam ALL VERSIONS 2025 | LATEST AND ACCURATE REAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS | VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST UPDATE

What is the most common cause of generalized musculoskeletal pain in women ages 20 to 55? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Osteoarthritis C. Fibromyalgia syndrome D. Lupus erythematosus Correct Answer: C. Fibromyalgia syndrome Rationale: Fibromyalgia is a common cause of chronic widespread musculoskeletal pain in women, often with fatigue and sleep disturbances. If the INR is above therapeutic range in a patient with atrial fibrillation on warfarin, what should the clinician do? A. Increase warfarin dosage B. Stop warfarin permanently C. Withhold one or more days of therapy D. Add aspirin to the regimen Correct Answer: C. Withhold one or more days of therapy Rationale: Holding the medication temporarily allows the INR to return to a safe therapeutic range, reducing bleeding risk. What should the clinician ask about in a 32-year-old woman with 12 months of infertility? A. History of breast cancer B. Pelvic inflammatory disease C. History of thyroid disease D. Past use of oral contraceptives Correct Answer: B. Pelvic inflammatory disease Rationale: PID can lead to scarring of the fallopian tubes, a common cause of infertility. Which statement is true regarding fibromyalgia treatment? A. There is a cure for fibromyalgia. B. Only physical therapy is effective. C. Only opioids relieve the pain. D. All of the above Correct Answer: D. All of the above Rationale: While there is no cure, treatment focuses on symptom relief with various strategies including medications, physical therapy, and sleep management. For a patient with acute prostatitis, antibiotics should cover which organisms? A. Gram-positive cocci B. Gram-negative bacilli C. Anaerobes D. Mycobacteria Correct Answer: B. Gram-negative bacilli Rationale: The most common pathogens in acute bacterial prostatitis are gramnegative bacilli like E. coli. What household solution should be used to clean a bathroom shared with someone who has HIV? A. Vinegar B. Alcohol C. 9 parts water to 1 part bleach D. Antibacterial soap Correct Answer: C. 9 parts water to 1 part bleach Rationale: A diluted bleach solution is effective in disinfecting surfaces and inactivating HIV outside the body. Which leukemia type is most associated with bone and joint pain in adults? A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia B. Acute myelogenous leukemia C. Chronic myelogenous leukemia D. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia Correct Answer: B. Acute myelogenous leukemia Rationale: AML often presents with bone marrow expansion and pain. Which eating disorder involves craving non-food items like clay or ice, often related to iron deficiency? A. Anorexia nervosa B. Bulimia nervosa C. Pica D. Orthorexia Correct Answer: C. Pica Rationale: Pica is the compulsive eating of non-nutritive substances and is often associated with iron deficiency. What tests should be ordered initially to evaluate suspected hyperthyroidism? A. Free T3 only B. TSH and Free T4 C. Thyroid ultrasound D. Thyroid antibody panel Correct Answer: B. TSH and Free T4 Rationale: TSH and Free T4 are standard initial labs to assess thyroid function. Which statement indicates understanding of diabetes self-care? A. “I don’t need eye exams unless I have symptoms.” B. “I’ll get my eyes checked yearly.” C. “I’ll only test my sugar if I feel sick.” D. “My vision isn’t affected by diabetes.” Correct Answer: B. “I’ll get my eyes checked yearly.” Rationale: Annual eye exams are essential in type 1 diabetes to detect diabetic retinopathy early. UV-A and UV-B exposure can trigger flares of which condition? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Psoriasis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) D. Osteoarthritis Correct Answer: C. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) Rationale: UV exposure is a known trigger for lupus flares due to photosensitivity. Which finding distinguishes anaphylaxis from a vasovagal reaction? A. Flushed skin B. Nausea C. Severe bronchoconstriction D. Bradycardia Correct Answer: C. Severe bronchoconstriction Rationale: Anaphylaxis includes respiratory compromise, unlike vasovagal syncope. Which complementary therapies have shown promise in managing osteoarthritis? A. Acupuncture B. Tai-chi C. Acupressure D. All of the above Correct Answer: D. All of the above Rationale: These therapies may help when combined with standard medical treatment. What is a benefit of motivational interviewing (MI)? A. Assumes ambivalence is normal B. Time-efficient C. Useful in routine visits D. All of the above Correct Answer: D. All of the above Rationale: MI supports patient-centered change, is time-effective, and practical in daily practice. Using the rule of nines, burns to both front legs represent what % TBSA? A. 9% B. 18% C. 27% D. 36% Correct Answer: B. 18% Rationale: Each leg accounts for 9% (front) x 2 = 18% total body surface area. When is the highest risk period for postpartum depression? A. First 2 weeks B. First month C. First 3 months D. First 6 months Correct Answer: D. First 6 months Rationale: PPD risk remains elevated for up to 6 months postpartum. What is the most accurate statement about HIV PEP for healthcare workers? A. PEP is not needed unless symptoms occur B. PEP should be started within hours C. PEP is only given if a needle is reused D. PEP can wait 72 hours Correct Answer: B. PEP should be started within hours Rationale: Early initiation maximizes PEP effectiveness in preventing HIV. Which of the following would indicate the need for ankle radiographs? A. Inability to bear weight B. Significant swelling/discoloration C. Crepitus D. All of the above Correct Answer: D. All of the above Rationale: These are red flags suggesting a fracture that requires imaging. Which food should a vegetarian with gout avoid? A. Carrots B. Spinach C. Beans D. Potatoes Correct Answer: B. Spinach Rationale: Spinach is high in purines and may precipitate gout attacks. Impaired downward gaze due to basilar skull fracture involves which nerve? A. CN II B. CN III C. CN IV D. CN VI Correct Answer: C. CN IV Rationale: CN IV (trochlear nerve) controls downward gaze. What medical conditions mimic panic disorder? A. Pheochromocytoma B. Hyperthyroidism C. Arrhythmias D. All of the above Correct Answer: D. All of the above Rationale: These conditions can present similarly to panic attacks. What is the most cost-effective HIV screening test? A. Western blot B. ELISA C. HIV RNA PCR D. CD4 count Correct Answer: B. ELISA Rationale: ELISA is widely used and economical for initial HIV screening. Which test best evaluates the severity of inflammation? A. ESR B. Hemoglobin C. WBC count D. C-reactive protein (CRP) Correct Answer: D. C-reactive protein (CRP) Rationale: CRP rises rapidly in acute inflammation and is a sensitive marker. Which neurotransmitter is affected by cocaine? A. Serotonin B. Acetylcholine C. Dopamine D. GABA Correct Answer: C. Dopamine Rationale: Cocaine blocks dopamine reuptake, enhancing stimulant effects. What finding supports a diagnosis of lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow)? A. Pain with elbow extension B. Pain with resisted wrist movements C. Tenderness at biceps D. Swelling in the hand Correct Answer: B. Pain with resisted wrist movements Rationale: Lateral epicondylitis affects the extensor tendons attached at the elbow. What is true about musculoskeletal exam technique? A. Only the painful side should be examined B. No comparison is necessary C. Uninvolved side should be examined first D. Palpation is skipped Correct Answer: C. Uninvolved side should be examined first Rationale: Comparing to the normal side provides baseline reference. Which symptom suggests an inflammatory cause of MSK pain? A. Pain worsens with movement B. Morning stiffness C. Intermittent joint swelling D. All of the above Correct Answer: B. Morning stiffness Rationale: Stiffness lasting over 30 minutes suggests an inflammatory origin. Which animal causes the highest percentage of mammalian bites? A. Cats B. Rats C. Dogs D. Bats Correct Answer: C. Dogs Rationale: Dogs account for the majority of animal bite injuries.