WGU D118 Unit 5 Test Questions 100% Solved

WGU D118 Unit 5 Test Questions 100% Solved An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is working with a patient who has had recurrent cystitis. The patient has implemented many changes, including drinking cranberry juice, increasing water intake, urinating after intercourse and discontinued use of a diaphragm, and replacing with oral contraceptives. In discussion with the patient, the APRN learns that the cystitis symptoms seem to be linked to frequency of intercourse. Which order should the APRN make for prophylactic treatment? -Nitrofurantoin 50 mg qd x2 to begin one day before intercourse -Ofloxacin 100 mg qd x2 to begin one day before intercourse -Cephalexin 500 mg within 24 hours of intercourse -Ciprofloxacin 125 mg within 24 hours of intercourse Correct! Prophylactic pharmacotherapy for postcoital cystitis is recommended. Ciprofloxacin 125–250 mg within 24 hours of intercourse is appropriate. A daycare worker is assessed by an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) due to complaints of sudden-onset of scattered macular and vesicular lesions on the palms and between fingers, arms, and soles of the feet, buttocks, and legs. The patient has a temperature of 101.2°F (38.4°C). The APRN diagnoses hand, foot, and mouth disease. Which action should the APRN take to assist this patient? -Start using calamine lotion -Decrease fluid intake -Increase fluid intake -Start drinking warm liquids Correct! With hand, foot, and mouth disease, fluid intake should be increased to alleviate dehydration. A 35-year-old patient meets with an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) to discuss a low back pain that began three days earlier and has never occurred before. The pain and stiffness intensifies after sitting for long periods of time, and the patient is concerned about the problem impacting work. Which action should the APRN take first to assist this patient? -Prescribe oral opioids -Allow the back pain to resolve naturally -Order lumbar X-rays -Recommend use of an ergonomic standing desk Allow the back pain to resolve naturally Correct! The natural process of low back pain is that most cases will resolve in a timely manner. The patient needs reassurance of this and should be permitted to return to work. A patient presents to the clinic with a sudden onset of fever, chills, headache, and malaise during the winter months. Upon assessment, the advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) notes a temperature of 103°F (39.4°C), clear nasal discharge, a dry cough, and enlarged cervical lymph nodes. Abdominal exam reveals no splenomegaly. Which diagnosis should the APRN suspect for this patient? -Tuberculosis -Influenza -Mononucleosis -West Nile Correct! Influenza is an acute infection of the respiratory tract that occurs primarily during the winter months. Symptoms include fever, chills, headache, malaise, clear nasal discharge, a dry cough, and enlarged cervical lymph nodes. An adult patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is seen by an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) with complaints of a productive cough that is worse in the morning and improves throughout the day. The patient reports smoking a half a pack of cigarettes each day for the past 15 years. Assessment results include a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute with rhonchi and wheezing bilaterally. The spirometry results reveal the FEV1 is 65%, and the FVC is 45%. How should the APRN classify this patient's stage of COPD? -Mild -Moderate -Moderate-severe -Severe Correct! Moderate chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has spirometry results of FEV1 (forced expiratory volume in 1 sec.) of 40%–59% and FVC (forced vital capacity) of 60–69%. An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is assessing a patient who presents to the clinic with complaints of morning cough, sputum production, and dyspnea with activity for the last three months. Vital signs are within normal limits. Chest X-ray is unremarkable. Office spirometry is conducted and pre- and post-bronchodilator administration shows no improvement with expiratory and capacity values of less than 70%. Which diagnosis should be suspected by the APRN? Mild persistent asthma Community-acquired pneumonia Allergy-induced symptoms Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease Correct! Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with morning cough, sputum production, and increasing dyspnea with activity. The spirometry results post-bronchodilator administration with expiratory and capacity values of less than 70% indicate COPD. A patient arrives at a clinic for a regularly scheduled visit. During the examination, the patient shares that they have been experiencing angina, radiating pain, and tingling and numbness in the right hand over the past week. The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) establishes that the patient is not in acute distress but suspects the patient has coronary artery disease. Which initial action should the APRN take? -Conduct a thorough history and physical examination -Ascertain the family history of coronary artery disease and diabetes -Recommend that the patient have a cardiac catheterization test Schedule the patient for a myocardial perfusion imaging test Correct! The optimum assessment of coronary artery disease (CAD) is a thorough history and physical examination that includes prior medical history of myocardial infarction (MI) or CAD and the patient's present complaints, such as angina, radiating pain, tingling, or numbness. A patient is being evaluated by an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) for a follow-up visit after being discharged from the hospital for a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Which action should the APRN perform as part of the patient's long-term treatment plan? -Modify the patient's statin therapy and titrate to achieve LDL-C below 115 mg/dL -Modify the patient's diet to increase sodium intake to more than 1,500 mg/day -Educate the patient on recognizing and reporting signs of a stroke -Educate the patient on adherence to the anthracyclines regimen in preventing stroke -Educate the patient on adherence to the anthracyclines regimen in preventing stroke Correct! A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a temporary blockage of blood flow to the brain and may be a warning sign of a future cerebrovascular accident (CVA, stroke). It is important for the patient to be able to recognize and report signs of a stroke. A patient is being evaluated by an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) about problems with watery, liquid stools. The patient had been on a broad-spectrum antibiotic for two weeks. The APRN suspects a secondary complication. Which test will confirm the APRN's suspicion? -Hemoccult -DNA stool sample -Polymerase chain reaction -Fecal fat Correct! Because this patient presents with watery, liquid stools and a recent history of antibiotic usage, a secondary complication of clostridium difficile (c. diff) is suspected. A positive polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test will confirm the patient has c. diff. A patient is speaking with an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) about problems with chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease that is no longer responding to the previously prescribed proton pump inhibitor medication. Which disease should the APRN suspect in this patient? -Barrett esophagus -Helicobacter pylori-induced gastritis -Cholecystitis -Acute viral gastroenteritis Correct! Barrett esophagus may be diagnosed in individuals who have long-term gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and who are no longer responding to proton pump inhibitor medication for GERD.