CCT - Practice Test Questions and Answers
1. Which phase of the action potential in fast response myocardial tissues consists of rapid
depolarization, with the resting cell being brought to threshold?
a. Phase 0
b. Phase 1
c. Phase 2
d. Phase 3 Correct Ans-7. A: Phase 0 consists of rapid depolarization of the cell to
threshold, which leads to activation of voltage-dependent sodium channels. Phase 1 consists
of a slight "notch" of repolarization caused mainly by the activation of transient potassium
currents (potassium leaving the cell) and a corresponding rapid decrease in the sodium
current. Phase 2 is a plateau phase during which "late" calcium, and to a lesser extent sodium,
currents offset the effect of potassium currents and temporarily stabilize the membrane
potential. Phase 3 refers to repolarization and return to resting potential due to increased
potassium currents. Phase 4 is the resting membrane potential.
2. The depolarizing current in pacemaker cells is created primarily by which of the following
ions?
a. Sodium
b. Calcium
c. Potassium
d. Chloride Correct Ans-8. B: The depolarizing current in cardiac pacemaker cells is carried
primarily by relatively slow, inward calcium currents. In most other depolarizing cells, such as
muscle cells, the depolarization is created by fast sodium currents. Potassium plays a role in
repolarization of the cells.
, CCT - Practice Test Questions and Answers
3. Which of the following commonly limits the diagnostic value of Holter monitoring?
a. Patient noncompliance with keeping track of events
b. Lack of continuous monitoring
c. Small capacity of recording devices
d. Transmission of data depends on patient participation Correct Ans-9. A: Patient
noncompliance with keeping a diary of their symptoms and using event markers significantly
limits the diagnostic value of Holter monitoring. It is important for patients to record and
mark their symptoms in order to correlate events with the data collected. Holter monitoring is
a type of continuous monitoring and benefits include the large capacity of the recording
devices as well as the ability to transmit data without patient participation.
4. Which of the following effects is caused by the actions of the parasympathetic nervous
system on the heart?
a. Increased rate of conduction
b. Greater force of contraction
c. Decreased diastolic filling time
d. Decreased rate of SA node pacing Correct Ans-10. D: The parasympathetic nervous
system results in cardiac inhibitory effects, including decreased rate of SA node pacing,
decreased rate of conduction, and decreased force of contraction. The sympathetic nervous
system increases the rate of conduction and causes increased force of contraction. An
increased contraction rate, caused by sympathetic nervous system stimulation, would result
in decreased diastolic filling time.
, CCT - Practice Test Questions and Answers
11. What does the T wave represent on an ECG?
a. Atrial depolarization
b. Ventricular depolarization
c. Atrial repolarization
d. Ventricular repolarization Correct Ans-11. D: Repolarization of the ventricles begins
immediately after the QRS. The T wave represents the final and more rapid phase of that
repolarization. Atrial depolarization is represented by the P wave. Ventricular depolarization
is represented by the QRS complex. Atrial repolarization is not seen on the ECG.
12. What benefit does a thallium stress test have as compared to a standard ECG stress test?
a. More quickly identifies areas of myocardial ischemia in the heart
b. The test is simpler to perform
c. More accurately identifies the specific areas of reduced blood flow in the heart
d. Is a safer test overall for the patient Correct Ans-12. C: Thallium stress tests, also known
as nuclear stress tests, gather more specific and accurate information than simple ECG stress
tests. It is a helpful test when trying to identify the severity of coronary artery disease in a
patient with known coronary disease.
13. Which of the following is the correct placement of chest leads for a 12-lead ECG?
a. V1 in the third intercostal space, immediately right of the sternum. V2 in the fourth
intercostal space, immediately left of the sternum. V3 midway between V2 and V4. V4 in the
fifth intercostal space, at the midclavicular line. V5 in the fourth intercostal space, at the
anterior axillary line. V6 in the third intercostal space, at the midaxillary line.
1. Which phase of the action potential in fast response myocardial tissues consists of rapid
depolarization, with the resting cell being brought to threshold?
a. Phase 0
b. Phase 1
c. Phase 2
d. Phase 3 Correct Ans-7. A: Phase 0 consists of rapid depolarization of the cell to
threshold, which leads to activation of voltage-dependent sodium channels. Phase 1 consists
of a slight "notch" of repolarization caused mainly by the activation of transient potassium
currents (potassium leaving the cell) and a corresponding rapid decrease in the sodium
current. Phase 2 is a plateau phase during which "late" calcium, and to a lesser extent sodium,
currents offset the effect of potassium currents and temporarily stabilize the membrane
potential. Phase 3 refers to repolarization and return to resting potential due to increased
potassium currents. Phase 4 is the resting membrane potential.
2. The depolarizing current in pacemaker cells is created primarily by which of the following
ions?
a. Sodium
b. Calcium
c. Potassium
d. Chloride Correct Ans-8. B: The depolarizing current in cardiac pacemaker cells is carried
primarily by relatively slow, inward calcium currents. In most other depolarizing cells, such as
muscle cells, the depolarization is created by fast sodium currents. Potassium plays a role in
repolarization of the cells.
, CCT - Practice Test Questions and Answers
3. Which of the following commonly limits the diagnostic value of Holter monitoring?
a. Patient noncompliance with keeping track of events
b. Lack of continuous monitoring
c. Small capacity of recording devices
d. Transmission of data depends on patient participation Correct Ans-9. A: Patient
noncompliance with keeping a diary of their symptoms and using event markers significantly
limits the diagnostic value of Holter monitoring. It is important for patients to record and
mark their symptoms in order to correlate events with the data collected. Holter monitoring is
a type of continuous monitoring and benefits include the large capacity of the recording
devices as well as the ability to transmit data without patient participation.
4. Which of the following effects is caused by the actions of the parasympathetic nervous
system on the heart?
a. Increased rate of conduction
b. Greater force of contraction
c. Decreased diastolic filling time
d. Decreased rate of SA node pacing Correct Ans-10. D: The parasympathetic nervous
system results in cardiac inhibitory effects, including decreased rate of SA node pacing,
decreased rate of conduction, and decreased force of contraction. The sympathetic nervous
system increases the rate of conduction and causes increased force of contraction. An
increased contraction rate, caused by sympathetic nervous system stimulation, would result
in decreased diastolic filling time.
, CCT - Practice Test Questions and Answers
11. What does the T wave represent on an ECG?
a. Atrial depolarization
b. Ventricular depolarization
c. Atrial repolarization
d. Ventricular repolarization Correct Ans-11. D: Repolarization of the ventricles begins
immediately after the QRS. The T wave represents the final and more rapid phase of that
repolarization. Atrial depolarization is represented by the P wave. Ventricular depolarization
is represented by the QRS complex. Atrial repolarization is not seen on the ECG.
12. What benefit does a thallium stress test have as compared to a standard ECG stress test?
a. More quickly identifies areas of myocardial ischemia in the heart
b. The test is simpler to perform
c. More accurately identifies the specific areas of reduced blood flow in the heart
d. Is a safer test overall for the patient Correct Ans-12. C: Thallium stress tests, also known
as nuclear stress tests, gather more specific and accurate information than simple ECG stress
tests. It is a helpful test when trying to identify the severity of coronary artery disease in a
patient with known coronary disease.
13. Which of the following is the correct placement of chest leads for a 12-lead ECG?
a. V1 in the third intercostal space, immediately right of the sternum. V2 in the fourth
intercostal space, immediately left of the sternum. V3 midway between V2 and V4. V4 in the
fifth intercostal space, at the midclavicular line. V5 in the fourth intercostal space, at the
anterior axillary line. V6 in the third intercostal space, at the midaxillary line.
