ASCP MB: Extra-Practice Questions Correctly answered 2022

ASCP MB: Extra-Practice Questions Correctly answered 2022The Klenow fragment of E. coli DNA polymerase I is used: to label DNA probes by random primer labeling. What is a solution hybridization method for the detection of nucleic acid:protein interactions? gel mobility shift assay _____ involves mixing a labeled oligonucleotide with a protein extract to see if a specific interaction occurs, visible with an apparent increase in molecular size on a gel due to the protein:nucleic acid interaction. Gel mobility shift assay Which probe is most often used to detect trisomy 21 by interphase FISH? alpha satellite DNA probe _____ detect specific chromosomes and numbers of the specific chromosomes. Alpha satellite DNA probe Which reagent generates a signal during the annealing stage of a quantitative real time PCR reaction? molecular beacon Methylation of cytosine residues is involved in the alteration of gene expression in a number of cancers. Which sequencing technique is best suited to determine if methylation of cytosine residues has taken place in the promoter region of a given gene? bisulfite sequencing _____ is a modified chain terminator method specifically designed to detect methylated nucleotides. Bisulfite sequencing Which method is best suited to screen for mutations in a gene having multiple possible mutations? single strand conformational polymorphism (SSCP) _____ is a screening test in which the exact nature of a mutation does not need to be known in order to detect the presence of a mutation. Single strand conformational polymorphism (SSCP) What is the best method to rule out the possibility of genomic DNA giving a false-positive result in an RT-PCR reaction? use of upstream and downstream primers that span an exon-intron-exon region of the target *amplicaons generated from genomic DNA would be larger than the specific amplicon generated from a mature, spliced mRNA A common use for pulsed-field gel electrophoresis is: epidemiological typing of bacterial strains. _____ after digestion of bacterial chromosomes with restriction enzymes is used to determine similarity between bacterial isolates. PFGE A translocation in which chromosome pair creates a BCR/ABL1 fusion gene product associated with CML? a. 11;18 b. 14;18 c. 9;22 d. 9;14 t(9;22) The presence of a distinct band along with the smear indicates at least 1% of the patient's B cells have a _____ of the Ig heavy chain. monoclonal rearrangement A molecular-based test commonly used in testing donors and recipients prior to organ transplantation is: sequence-specific PCR. _____ is commonly performed to determine polymorphisms in class I and class II HLA-DRB and HLA-DRQ genes. Sequence-specific PCR DNA sequencing of hypervariable regions I and II is used to: detect polymorphisms in human mitochondrial DNA. HV1 and HV2 are sequenced to determine _____. mitochondrial inheritance. Repeated discrepancies between patient identifiers will result in _____ the error being documented to the laboratory supervisor and the risk manager will conduct a root cause analysis. An index of precision is statistically known as the: coefficient of variation. The _____ is the measure of relative random error expressed as a percentage. coefficient of variation The term used to describe reproducibility is: precision. _____ is the degree to which results of multiple analyses of the same specimen agree. Precision The process by which an agency or organization uses predetermined standards to evaluate and recognize a program of study in an institution is called: accreditation. Using a common labeling system for hazardous material identification such as HMIS or NFPA 704, which hazard is represented by: the top red quadrant? the right yellow quadrant? the lower white quadrant? the left blue quadrant? flammability reactivity special reactivity health If the HMIS or NFPA 704 hazardous material identification system has a number 4 in the left blue quadrant, it represents a: high health hazard The ratings for the HMIS or NFPA 704 hazardous material identification systhem are 0-4 with 0 being _____ and 4 being _____. no hazard; most severe hazard Which chemical is a potential carcinogen? formaldehyde When hazardous chemicals are transferred from the original appropriately labeled container(s) to a secondary container for immediate use by the person performing the transfer, it: does not require labeling. A technologist spilled 10 gallons of formaldehyde on the floor. After determining the chemical poses a significant health hazard, the first action step would be to: evacuate the area. One of the elements of a written laboratory chemical hygiene plan is to: designate a laboratory chemical hygiene officer. When working with sharp equipment and objects, use a: mechanical device. Incident reports for occupational injury or illness should: be filed for all incidents including near miss incidents. According to OSHA, what type of warning sign should be posted in an area where an immediate hazard exists and where special precautions are necessary? red, black and white "Danger" sign All laboratory instruments should: be grounded or double insulated. have safety checks performed initially, annually and whenever repairs are made. If areas of the laboratory are designated as "clean" or "contaminated," it is appropriate for a technologist to: touch a "contaminated" area phone with ungloved hands if hands are washed afterward. Flammable and combustible liquids in containers greater than or equal to 5 gallons should be stored in a(n): approved safety can.