2026/2027
NZ Nursing State Exam The
Complete Exam Preparation Mastery
Manual: Advanced Study Guide,
Extensive Test Bank Review, Full-
Length Practice Questions, and Final
Knowledge Assessment
1. Which principle of the nursing code of conduct focuses on treating each
health consumer as a unique individual with inherent dignity?
A. Maintain public trust in the profession
B. Respect the dignity and individuality of the health consumer
C. Work in partnership with colleagues
D. Ensure safe clinical environments
Correct Answer: B. Respect the dignity and individuality of the health consumer
Rationale: This principle means recognizing every patient as a unique person with rights,
values, and personal needs.
2. Which organism is responsible for both strep throat and scarlet fever?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Group A Streptococcus
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Neisseria meningitidis
Correct Answer: B. Group A Streptococcus
Rationale: Group A Streptococcus causes both strep throat and scarlet fever and
produces toxins that lead to the characteristic rash.
3. How long after untreated streptococcal infection does acute rheumatic fever
typically develop?
A. 24–48 hours
B. 1–5 weeks
C. 6 months
D. Immediately after infection
,2026/2027
Correct Answer: B. 1–5 weeks
Rationale: Rheumatic fever is a delayed immune response that typically occurs 1–5
weeks after untreated strep infection.
4. Which statement best describes latent TB?
A. Highly contagious active infection
B. Symptomatic lung destruction
C. Bacteria are dormant and non-infectious
D. Always progresses to cancer
Correct Answer: C. Bacteria are dormant and non-infectious
Rationale: Latent TB means the bacteria are present but inactive, with no symptoms and
no transmission risk.
5. Tuberculosis is primarily transmitted through:
A. Blood contact
B. Sexual transmission
C. Airborne droplets
D. Fecal contamination
Correct Answer: C. Airborne droplets
Rationale: TB spreads through inhalation of airborne droplets released when an infected
person coughs or sneezes.
6. What is the initial screening test for tuberculosis?
A. Chest CT scan
B. Mantoux skin test
C. Sputum culture only
D. MRI scan
Correct Answer: B. Mantoux skin test
Rationale: The Mantoux test is the standard first-line screening tool for TB exposure.
7. Which symptom is most consistent with strep throat?
A. Productive cough
B. Sore throat with fever
C. Chronic diarrhea
D. Skin jaundice
,2026/2027
Correct Answer: B. Sore throat with fever
Rationale: Strep throat typically presents with sore throat, fever, and lymphadenopathy.
8. Scarlet fever is identified when strep throat is accompanied by:
A. Bluish lips
B. Bright red sandpaper-like rash
C. Joint swelling only
D. Neck stiffness
Correct Answer: B. Bright red sandpaper-like rash
Rationale: Scarlet fever results from toxin-producing Group A Strep and causes a rough,
red rash.
9. Active immunity is best defined as:
A. Transfer of antibodies from mother
B. Short-term passive protection
C. Antibody production after antigen exposure
D. No immune response
Correct Answer: C. Antibody production after antigen exposure
Rationale: Active immunity occurs when the body produces its own antibodies after
vaccination or infection.
10. Which is an example of passive immunity?
A. Vaccination
B. Breastfeeding
C. Infection recovery
D. Exercise
Correct Answer: B. Breastfeeding
Rationale: Passive immunity involves transfer of antibodies from another source, such as
maternal antibodies in breast milk.
11. Which is a hallmark sign of anaphylaxis?
A. Bradycardia only
B. Wheezing and hypotension
C. Constipation
D. Mild headache
, 2026/2027
Correct Answer: B. Wheezing and hypotension
Rationale: Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction involving airway compromise and
cardiovascular collapse.
12. A vasovagal episode is best described as:
A. Stroke
B. Fainting due to vagal stimulation
C. Seizure disorder
D. Hypertensive crisis
Correct Answer: B. Fainting due to vagal stimulation
Rationale: Vasovagal syncope is a temporary loss of consciousness due to reduced
heart rate and blood pressure.
13. When does the posterior fontanelle typically close?
A. 2–3 months
B. 6–8 months
C. 12 months
D. 18 months
Correct Answer: A. 2–3 months
Rationale: The posterior fontanelle closes early in infancy, usually by 2–3 months.
14. Where is the appendix located?
A. LUQ
B. RLQ
C. LLQ
D. RUQ
Correct Answer: B. RLQ
Rationale: The appendix is located in the right lower quadrant, and pain there suggests
appendicitis.
15. The most common cause of appendicitis in children is:
A. Viral infection
B. Obstruction of lumen
C. Trauma
D. Autoimmune disease
NZ Nursing State Exam The
Complete Exam Preparation Mastery
Manual: Advanced Study Guide,
Extensive Test Bank Review, Full-
Length Practice Questions, and Final
Knowledge Assessment
1. Which principle of the nursing code of conduct focuses on treating each
health consumer as a unique individual with inherent dignity?
A. Maintain public trust in the profession
B. Respect the dignity and individuality of the health consumer
C. Work in partnership with colleagues
D. Ensure safe clinical environments
Correct Answer: B. Respect the dignity and individuality of the health consumer
Rationale: This principle means recognizing every patient as a unique person with rights,
values, and personal needs.
2. Which organism is responsible for both strep throat and scarlet fever?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Group A Streptococcus
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Neisseria meningitidis
Correct Answer: B. Group A Streptococcus
Rationale: Group A Streptococcus causes both strep throat and scarlet fever and
produces toxins that lead to the characteristic rash.
3. How long after untreated streptococcal infection does acute rheumatic fever
typically develop?
A. 24–48 hours
B. 1–5 weeks
C. 6 months
D. Immediately after infection
,2026/2027
Correct Answer: B. 1–5 weeks
Rationale: Rheumatic fever is a delayed immune response that typically occurs 1–5
weeks after untreated strep infection.
4. Which statement best describes latent TB?
A. Highly contagious active infection
B. Symptomatic lung destruction
C. Bacteria are dormant and non-infectious
D. Always progresses to cancer
Correct Answer: C. Bacteria are dormant and non-infectious
Rationale: Latent TB means the bacteria are present but inactive, with no symptoms and
no transmission risk.
5. Tuberculosis is primarily transmitted through:
A. Blood contact
B. Sexual transmission
C. Airborne droplets
D. Fecal contamination
Correct Answer: C. Airborne droplets
Rationale: TB spreads through inhalation of airborne droplets released when an infected
person coughs or sneezes.
6. What is the initial screening test for tuberculosis?
A. Chest CT scan
B. Mantoux skin test
C. Sputum culture only
D. MRI scan
Correct Answer: B. Mantoux skin test
Rationale: The Mantoux test is the standard first-line screening tool for TB exposure.
7. Which symptom is most consistent with strep throat?
A. Productive cough
B. Sore throat with fever
C. Chronic diarrhea
D. Skin jaundice
,2026/2027
Correct Answer: B. Sore throat with fever
Rationale: Strep throat typically presents with sore throat, fever, and lymphadenopathy.
8. Scarlet fever is identified when strep throat is accompanied by:
A. Bluish lips
B. Bright red sandpaper-like rash
C. Joint swelling only
D. Neck stiffness
Correct Answer: B. Bright red sandpaper-like rash
Rationale: Scarlet fever results from toxin-producing Group A Strep and causes a rough,
red rash.
9. Active immunity is best defined as:
A. Transfer of antibodies from mother
B. Short-term passive protection
C. Antibody production after antigen exposure
D. No immune response
Correct Answer: C. Antibody production after antigen exposure
Rationale: Active immunity occurs when the body produces its own antibodies after
vaccination or infection.
10. Which is an example of passive immunity?
A. Vaccination
B. Breastfeeding
C. Infection recovery
D. Exercise
Correct Answer: B. Breastfeeding
Rationale: Passive immunity involves transfer of antibodies from another source, such as
maternal antibodies in breast milk.
11. Which is a hallmark sign of anaphylaxis?
A. Bradycardia only
B. Wheezing and hypotension
C. Constipation
D. Mild headache
, 2026/2027
Correct Answer: B. Wheezing and hypotension
Rationale: Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction involving airway compromise and
cardiovascular collapse.
12. A vasovagal episode is best described as:
A. Stroke
B. Fainting due to vagal stimulation
C. Seizure disorder
D. Hypertensive crisis
Correct Answer: B. Fainting due to vagal stimulation
Rationale: Vasovagal syncope is a temporary loss of consciousness due to reduced
heart rate and blood pressure.
13. When does the posterior fontanelle typically close?
A. 2–3 months
B. 6–8 months
C. 12 months
D. 18 months
Correct Answer: A. 2–3 months
Rationale: The posterior fontanelle closes early in infancy, usually by 2–3 months.
14. Where is the appendix located?
A. LUQ
B. RLQ
C. LLQ
D. RUQ
Correct Answer: B. RLQ
Rationale: The appendix is located in the right lower quadrant, and pain there suggests
appendicitis.
15. The most common cause of appendicitis in children is:
A. Viral infection
B. Obstruction of lumen
C. Trauma
D. Autoimmune disease
