NR601 Final Exam: Primary Care of the Maturing & Aged Family
Practicum Questions and Answers and Explanations | Latest -
Chamberlain
1. Which of the following is considered an Instrumental Activity of Daily Living
(IADL)?
A. Bathing and grooming
B. Feeding oneself
C. Transferring from bed to chair
D. Managing finances and medications
Answer: D
Explanation: IADLs are more complex tasks necessary for independent living in the
community, such as managing finances, shopping, and using the telephone, whereas ADLs
are basic self-care tasks.
2. According to the Beers Criteria, which medication should be avoided in older
adults due to high anticholinergic risk?
A. Lisinopril
B. Metformin
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Atorvastatin
Answer: C
,Explanation: Diphenhydramine is a first-generation antihistamine with potent
anticholinergic effects, increasing risks of confusion, dry mouth, and falls in the elderly.
3. What is the recommended A1c goal for a ‘frail’ older adult with multiple
chronic illnesses and limited life expectancy?
A. Between 8.0% and 8.5%
B. Less than 7.0%
C. Less than 6.5%
D. Between 7.0% and 7.5%
Answer: A
Explanation: In complex/poor health patients, the goal is relaxed to avoid hypoglycemia;
8.0-8.5% is generally accepted by the ADA for this population.
4. Which assessment tool is specifically used to screen for depression in the
geriatric population?
A. CAGE Questionnaire
B. Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE)
C. PHQ-2 or Geriatric Depression Scale (GDS)
D. The Katz Index
Answer: C
Explanation: The GDS is a validated screening tool for depression in older adults, focusing
on psychological rather than somatic symptoms.
,5. A ‘Timed Get Up and Go’ (TUG) test result of more than how many seconds
indicates a high risk for falls?
A. 5 seconds
B. 12 seconds
C. 8 seconds
D. 10 seconds
Answer: B
Explanation: A TUG score of 12 seconds or more is the standard cutoff identifying
individuals at increased risk for falling.
6. In the ‘Welcome to Medicare’ visit, which of the following is a mandatory
component?
A. Blood pressure and vision screening
B. End-of-life planning discussion
C. Comprehensive physical exam
D. Pap smear and pelvic exam
Answer: A
Explanation: The IPPE (Initial Preventive Physical Examination) includes measurement of
height, weight, BP, and vision screening, but it is not a ‘head-to-toe’ physical.
, 7. What is the hallmark sign of Delirium that distinguishes it from Dementia?
A. Gradual onset over years
B. Acute change in mental status and fluctuating course
C. Persistent memory loss
D. Difficulty finding words
Answer: B
Explanation: Delirium is characterized by an acute onset (hours to days), inattention, and
a fluctuating level of consciousness, unlike the slow progression of dementia.
8. Which class of antihypertensives is often avoided as first-line therapy in the
elderly due to the risk of depression and bradycardia?
A. Beta-Blockers
B. Calcium Channel Blockers
C. ACE Inhibitors
D. Thiazide Diuretics
Answer: A
Explanation: Beta-blockers can cause fatigue and depression in some elderly patients and
are generally not first-line for primary HTN unless comorbid conditions (like HF) exist.
Practicum Questions and Answers and Explanations | Latest -
Chamberlain
1. Which of the following is considered an Instrumental Activity of Daily Living
(IADL)?
A. Bathing and grooming
B. Feeding oneself
C. Transferring from bed to chair
D. Managing finances and medications
Answer: D
Explanation: IADLs are more complex tasks necessary for independent living in the
community, such as managing finances, shopping, and using the telephone, whereas ADLs
are basic self-care tasks.
2. According to the Beers Criteria, which medication should be avoided in older
adults due to high anticholinergic risk?
A. Lisinopril
B. Metformin
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Atorvastatin
Answer: C
,Explanation: Diphenhydramine is a first-generation antihistamine with potent
anticholinergic effects, increasing risks of confusion, dry mouth, and falls in the elderly.
3. What is the recommended A1c goal for a ‘frail’ older adult with multiple
chronic illnesses and limited life expectancy?
A. Between 8.0% and 8.5%
B. Less than 7.0%
C. Less than 6.5%
D. Between 7.0% and 7.5%
Answer: A
Explanation: In complex/poor health patients, the goal is relaxed to avoid hypoglycemia;
8.0-8.5% is generally accepted by the ADA for this population.
4. Which assessment tool is specifically used to screen for depression in the
geriatric population?
A. CAGE Questionnaire
B. Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE)
C. PHQ-2 or Geriatric Depression Scale (GDS)
D. The Katz Index
Answer: C
Explanation: The GDS is a validated screening tool for depression in older adults, focusing
on psychological rather than somatic symptoms.
,5. A ‘Timed Get Up and Go’ (TUG) test result of more than how many seconds
indicates a high risk for falls?
A. 5 seconds
B. 12 seconds
C. 8 seconds
D. 10 seconds
Answer: B
Explanation: A TUG score of 12 seconds or more is the standard cutoff identifying
individuals at increased risk for falling.
6. In the ‘Welcome to Medicare’ visit, which of the following is a mandatory
component?
A. Blood pressure and vision screening
B. End-of-life planning discussion
C. Comprehensive physical exam
D. Pap smear and pelvic exam
Answer: A
Explanation: The IPPE (Initial Preventive Physical Examination) includes measurement of
height, weight, BP, and vision screening, but it is not a ‘head-to-toe’ physical.
, 7. What is the hallmark sign of Delirium that distinguishes it from Dementia?
A. Gradual onset over years
B. Acute change in mental status and fluctuating course
C. Persistent memory loss
D. Difficulty finding words
Answer: B
Explanation: Delirium is characterized by an acute onset (hours to days), inattention, and
a fluctuating level of consciousness, unlike the slow progression of dementia.
8. Which class of antihypertensives is often avoided as first-line therapy in the
elderly due to the risk of depression and bradycardia?
A. Beta-Blockers
B. Calcium Channel Blockers
C. ACE Inhibitors
D. Thiazide Diuretics
Answer: A
Explanation: Beta-blockers can cause fatigue and depression in some elderly patients and
are generally not first-line for primary HTN unless comorbid conditions (like HF) exist.
