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SAE TMC Form A Exam with Questions and Answers A malfunctioning exhalation valve on a vent can cause significant.... ANSWER leak and prevent the development of normal pressures during the inspiratory phase of ventilation. Low volume alarms will sound off Obstructive lung disease is typically associated with? ANSWER An FEV1/FVC values of less than 70% Restrictive lung disease is typically associated with? ANSWER FEV1 and FVC values of less than 80% and FEV1/FVC values is typically a...

SAE Exam with Questions and Answers A 65-year-old right handed man has a pure Wernicke aphasia without hemiplegia after a stroke. The location of his stroke is in which branch of the left middle cerebral artery? a. posterior branch of the lower division b. anterior branch of the lower division c. posterior branch of the upper division d. anterior branch of the upper division ANSWER Answer: a Pure Wernicke aphasia without hemiplegia is seen with occlusion of the posterior branch of ...

SAE Exam Prep with Questions and Answers The respiratory therapist performs endotracheal suction on a patient who has a standard tracheostomy tube in place attached to a trach collar. During the procedure, the therapist notices that the vacuum pressure has stopped. The therapist should check the 1) cuff inflation on the trach tube 2) patency of the suction catheter 3) connecting tubing to the canister 4) lid to the suction canister A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 C. 3 and 4 D. 2, 3, and 4 AN...

SAE Exam Prep with Questions and Answers The respiratory therapist performs endotracheal suction on a patient who has a standard tracheostomy tube in place attached to a trach collar. During the procedure, the therapist notices that the vacuum pressure has stopped. The therapist should check the 1) cuff inflation on the trach tube 2) patency of the suction catheter 3) connecting tubing to the canister 4) lid to the suction canister A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 C. 3 and 4 D. 2, 3, and 4 AN...

SAE Exam with Actual Questions and Answers Question 36: You are ordered to give an IPPB treatment to a comatose patient who has lip ulcers. What patient-machine connection would you use? a. Mouthpiece b. Facemask c. Bennett seal with mouthpiece d. endotracheal tube adapter for intubation ANSWER B Question 37:The sensitivity control should be set at what level at the start of IPPB treatments? a. 0 cm H2O b. -1 cm H2O c. -3 cm H2O d. -5 cm H2O ANSWER B Question 38: While coachin...

Nur 600 Exam 1 with Questions and Answers Instructions to a client regarding self-administration of oral enteric-coated tablets should include which of the following statements? A. "Avoid any other oral medicines while taking this drug." B. "If swallowing this tablet is difficult, dissolve it in 3 ounces of orange juice." C. "The tablet may be crushed if you have any difficultly taking it." D. "To achieve best effect, take the tablet with at least 8 ounces of fluid....

NU671 Final Exam with Questions and Answers All of these are true for the diagnosis of schizoaffective disorder according to DSM 5 Criteria Except: A. An uninterrupted period of illness in which a person experiences psychotic symptoms as well as mood symptoms. B. Presence of delusions or hallucinations for 2 or more weeks. C. The disturbance is not attributable to the effect of a substance or another medical condition D. Difficulty sustaining attention in task or play activities. ANSWER...

Nur 600 Exam 1 with Questions and Solutions An advantage of prescribing a sublingual medication is that the medication is: A. Absorbed rapidly B. Excreted rapidly C. Metabolized minimally D. Distributed equally ANSWER A. Absorbed rapidly Drugs that use CYP 3A4 isoenzymes for metabolism may: A. Induce the metabolism of another drug B. Inhibit the metabolism of another drug C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B ANSWER C. Both A and B Therapeutic drug levels are drawn when a dr...

NUR 600 Exam with Questions and Answers Antidiuretic hormone, used for nocturia associated with UTI. ANSWER Desmopressin Serotonin receptor agonist, used for acute migraine attacks. ANSWER Sumatriptan Treatment for seizures ANSWER carbamazepine (Tegretol) valproate (Depakote) lamotrigine (Lamictal) phenytoin (Dilantin) Phenobarbitol pregabalin (Lyrica) clonazepam (Klonopin) Anticonvulsant, used for partial and generalized tonic-clonic seizures. ANSWER Carbamazepine (Tegreto...

NUR 600 Exam with Questions and Correct Answers Osteoarthritis ANSWER Pain progressively worse with time/age Pain in buttock, groin, anterior or lateral thigh AM stiffness for 5-30 minutes or after inactivity standing and walking for long periods of time increase pain/rest relieves limited rom crepitus Pain in appendicitis ANSWER pain starts in epigastrium or periumbilical area with migration to RLQ +rigidity=peritoneal involvement Appendicitis ANSWER RLQ abdominal...

NUR 131 Exam with Questions and Answers When an elderly pt who present suddenly with acute confusion, which test would you expect the HCP to order first? A) urine culture & sensitivity testing B) mini mental state exam C) swallow evaluation D) magnetic resonance imagine with contrast ANSWER A) urine culture & sensitivity testing What is the most appropriate intervention for a pt with sensory overload? A) dimming the lights B) delaying care for the next shift C) leaving the pt...

Wound Certification Exam with Questions and Answers what are the ABI values and its indicator? ANSWER >1.3=invalid 1.0-1.3=normal range 0.9 or less=LEAD 0.8-0.6=borderline 0.5 or less=severe ischemia and revascularization needed When should you obtain TcPO2 (transcutaneous partial pressure of O2)? ANSWER when ABI or TBI cannot be performed d/t calcification or amputation of ankles or toes What are the values of TcPO2 and its interpretation? ANSWER 40 mmHg or greater=normal &l...

Wound Specialist CWS Certified Exam with Questions and Answers How do mactophages respond to a hypoxic environment? ANSWER Wounds exhibit hypoxic environments either by vessel damage or intense cellular metabolic activity. In these hypoxic environments, macrophages promote angiogenesis. Which cells are the last to arrive during the proliferative phase? ANSWER T lymphocytes are the last cells to arrive during the proliferative stage and peak at day 7. They migrate from bone marrow to the ...

Wound Certified Specialist Exam with Questions and Solutions What is the ECM? ANSWER the non-cellular component present within tissues and organs that provide a scaffold for cellular function What is a cellular adhesion molecule? ANSWER subset of cell surface proteins that are involved in the binding of cells with other cells or with the extracellular matrix (ECM), in a process called cell adhesion. What are the 5 principle classes of CAM protiens? ANSWER Cadherins Immunoglobulin s...

Wound Certified Specialist Exam with Questions and Correct Answers How do partial-thickness wounds heal? ANSWER Through regeneration in which damaged or lost tissue is replaced with new tissue by the proliferation and lateral migration of epidermal cells from the wound edges across the surface of the wound In what phase of wound healing are collagen bers reorganizing? ANSWER The maturation phase What is the main function of the proliferative phase? ANSWER Production of collagen and e...

Wound Certified Specialist Exam 1 with Questions and Answers composite dressings? ANSWER Telfa, absorptive, cover dressings and adhesive layer. Aquacel surgical. antimicorbial cover dressings have to? ANSWER be directly in contact with wound bed to work. copolymers? ANSWER OPTILOCK, absorb drainage, super absorber = Amorphous gel. Prevents maceration by locking fluid in dressing. can wear up to 7 days. Foam dressings> ANSWER nonadhesive, gentle adhesive, some can have antimicr...

Certified Wound Specialist Exam Prep with Questions and Answers The Semmes-Weinstein monofilament that detects loss of protective sensation is the __________ size filament, which bends on _____ grams of pressure. ANSWER 5.07; 10 What is the greatest risk factor for developing a DFU? ANSWER Neuropathy What is the greatest risk factor for amputation? ANSWER DFU What is the most extensively studied technique for pressure redistribution/reduction particularly in the case of DFUs? ANSW...

CWS 101 Certified Wireless Specialist Exam with Questions and Answers What must be defined in order to properly determine capacity requirements? Select one: a. Number of devices and application characteristics b. Number of devices alone c. Firmware version on neighboring network APs d. Application characteristics alone ANSWER Number of devices and application characteristics In a highly-reflective environment, what result can have a negative impact on SISO 802.11 devices? Sel...

NATS Exam with Questions and Answers How does one wear their Badge? ANSWER Females: Below ribbons on the left side of the uniform and centered if one medal/badge or side by side if more than 1 medal/badge in order of precedence Priority of Medals and Badges: ANSWER National Medals JROTC Medals: Heroism Medals, Superior Cadet Medals, Color Guard, Drill and Raider Medals, and Camp Medals Badges: Air Rifle Badges: Expert, Sharpshooter, and Marksman How does one wear their cords? ANSW...

NATS Exam with Questions and Solutions How does one wear their rank on their ASU coat? ANSWER All enlisted and officers use the metal ranks on their coat and shoulder boards on their gray shirts. CPT and COL: The rank is centered between the seam and the edge of the button. Enlisted and Officers: The ranks are 5/8" from the seam of the sleeve. The distance between 2 disks or diamonds is ¼ How does one wear their torches? ANSWER Males: Enlisted and NCOs: 1" from the V and cent...