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1. Kramer's concept of 'reality shock' describes: A. A physiological response to night shift B. A type of compassion fatigue in experienced nurses C. The stress of taking the NCLEX D. The conflict new graduates feel when school-taught values clash with the realities of the workplace Correct Answer: D. The conflict new graduates feel when school-taught values clash with the realities of the workplace Rationale: Kramer described phases of honeymoon, shock, recovery and resolution ...

1. Stereotyping differs from generalization in that stereotyping: A. Applies a belief to an individual without assessing whether it fits B. Is a starting point to be verified C. Is always accurate D. Is required for cultural competence Correct Answer: A. Applies a belief to an individual without assessing whether it fits Rationale: Avoid stereotyping. 2. Using a professional medical interpreter rather than a family member: A. Is never necessary B. Is prohibited by law C. Increases erro...

1. Local health departments in the US derive public health authority primarily from: A. The federal government only B. States (police power reserved to states) C. Hospitals D. Insurance companies Correct Answer: B. States (police power reserved to states) Rationale: 10th Amendment. 2. In the Intervention Wheel, the three levels of practice are: A. Primary, secondary and tertiary B. Individual/family, community and systems C. Local, state and federal D. Acute, chronic and palliative C...

1. Disease and health event investigation, outreach and screening belong to which Intervention Wheel wedge? A. The blue wedge (social marketing) B. The green wedge (counseling) C. The orange wedge (policy) D. The red wedge (surveillance, disease investigation, outreach, screening, case finding) Correct Answer: D. The red wedge (surveillance, disease investigation, outreach, screening, case finding) Rationale: Wedge groupings. 2. Health disparities are: A. Random differences B. Prevent...

1. A carrier is: A. A person immune to disease B. A vector insect only C. A person with symptoms only D. A person who harbors an infectious agent without symptoms and can transmit it Correct Answer: D. A person who harbors an infectious agent without symptoms and can transmit it Rationale: e.g., Typhoid Mary. 2. Droplet precautions are required for: A. Tuberculosis B. Measles C. C. difficile D. Influenza, pertussis and meningococcal disease Correct Answer: D. Influenza, pertussis an...

1. A disadvantage of simulation is that: A. It cannot handle randomness B. It only works for continuous systems C. It never requires data D. Model building and output interpretation can be time-consuming and require expertise Correct Answer: D. Model building and output interpretation can be time-consuming and require expertise Rationale: Also outputs are random estimates. 2. In Kendall notation, the 'D' in M/D/1 denotes: A. Discrete uniform service B. Deterministic (constant) se...

1. Event-scheduling and process-interaction are: A. Two random number generators B. Two goodness-of-fit tests C. Two world views for modeling discrete-event systems D. Two output analysis methods Correct Answer: C. Two world views for modeling discrete-event systems Rationale: Arena uses process interaction. 2. A terminating simulation is one that: A. Has a natural ending event, such as a bank that closes at 5 pm B. Runs forever C. Has no initial conditions D. Only uses continuous var...

1. The FDA MedWatch program is used to: A. Order medications B. Set drug prices C. Prescribe controlled substances D. Report serious adverse drug events Correct Answer: D. Report serious adverse drug events Rationale: Safety reporting. 2. Codeine requires conversion by CYP2D6 to: A. Hydrocodone B. Morphine C. Oxycodone D. Tramadol Correct Answer: B. Morphine Rationale: Ultra-rapid metabolizers risk toxicity. 3. The blood-brain barrier limits: A. All lipophilic drugs B. Entry of m...

1. 'SnNout' means: A. A highly sensitive test, when negative, helps rule out disease B. A specific test rules out disease C. A sensitive test rules in disease D. Tests are unreliable Correct Answer: A. A highly sensitive test, when negative, helps rule out disease Rationale: Mnemonic. 2. The HEADSSS assessment is used for: A. Neonatal reflexes B. Adolescent psychosocial screening C. Geriatric falls D. Cardiac risk Correct Answer: B. Adolescent psychosocial screening Rationale:...

1. A focused exam is appropriate when: A. The patient presents with a specific complaint B. Performing an annual comprehensive exam C. Admitting to hospital always D. Never Correct Answer: A. The patient presents with a specific complaint Rationale: Problem-oriented. 2. Likelihood ratios help clinicians: A. Estimate how much a test result changes the probability of disease B. Calculate drug doses C. Measure blood pressure D. Code diagnoses Correct Answer: A. Estimate how much a test ...

1. The OLDCARTS mnemonic guides assessment of the: A. Family history B. History of present illness C. Review of systems only D. Physical exam Correct Answer: B. History of present illness Rationale: Symptom analysis. 2. The 'S' in SOAP includes: A. Vital signs B. Chief complaint, HPI, ROS and pertinent history C. Lab results D. Diagnosis Correct Answer: B. Chief complaint, HPI, ROS and pertinent history Rationale: Subjective. 3. Deliberate, analytical diagnostic reasoning is ...

1. The review of systems (ROS) is: A. The physical exam B. A list of labs C. A subjective inventory of symptoms by body system D. The assessment Correct Answer: C. A subjective inventory of symptoms by body system Rationale: Subjective. 2. Electronic health record templates may introduce risk of: A. Perfect accuracy B. Fewer details C. Copy-forward errors and inaccurate documentation D. Better reasoning always Correct Answer: C. Copy-forward errors and inaccurate documentation Ratio...

1. Nystagmus is: A. Drooping eyelid B. Pupil constriction C. Involuntary rhythmic eye movements D. Lens clouding Correct Answer: C. Involuntary rhythmic eye movements Rationale: Neuro or vestibular. 2. Neovascularization of the retina indicates: A. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy B. Normal aging C. Glaucoma D. Cataract Correct Answer: A. Proliferative diabetic retinopath

1. When an interpreter is needed, the clinician should: A. Use the patient's child B. Speak to the interpreter instead of the patient C. Use a trained medical interpreter and speak directly to the patient D. Avoid interpreters Correct Answer: C. Use a trained medical interpreter and speak directly to the patient Rationale: Best practice. 2. Trauma-informed care principles include: A. Rapid exams without explanation B. Restraints C. Ignoring history D. Safety, trustworthiness, choic...

UTA NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology for Nurse Practitioners: Exam 3 - Questions with Correct Answers 2 Exam (elaborations) UTA NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology for Nurse Practitioners: Final Exam (Comprehensive) - Questions with Correct Answers

Galen NUR 170 Concepts of Medical-Surgical Nursing: Exam 3- Questions with Correct Answers 2 Exam (elaborations) Galen NUR 170 Concepts of Medical-Surgical Nursing: Final Exam (Comprehensive) - Questions with Correct Answers 3 Exam (elaborations) Galen NUR 170 Concepts of Medical-Surgical Nursing: Midterm Exam (Units 1-7) - Questions with Correct A

1. Time management for a new nurse is improved by: A. Completing all charting at the end of shift B. Doing tasks in room-number order C. Using a shift 'brain sheet,' clustering care and prioritizing by patient acuity D. Skipping assessments Correct Answer: C. Using a shift 'brain sheet,' clustering care and prioritizing by patient acuity Rationale: Organization tools and prioritization based on patient needs prevent missed care. Delaying charting increases errors and late ent...

1. A client after a craniotomy has urine output of 400 mL/hr with low urine specific gravity. The nurse suspects: A. SIADH B. Acute kidney injury C. Diabetes insipidus D. Normal recovery Correct Answer: C. Diabetes insipidus Rationale: Injury to the pituitary or hypothalamus can impair ADH release. SIADH causes low urine output, and AKI does not produce large volumes of very dilute urine after brain surgery. 2. A client with type 1 diabetes is ill and not eating. The nurse should teach ...

1. Which client should the charge nurse assign to the float nurse from the obstetrics unit? A. A client on a ventilator B. A client with a new tracheostomy and unstable vitals C. A client requiring titration of vasoactive drips D. A stable postoperative client receiving routine care Correct Answer: D. A stable postoperative client receiving routine care Rationale: Float nurses should receive stable clients with predictable needs that match general nursing skills. Ventilated clients, unsta...

1. Social media use by nurses should: A. Never include patient information or images, even without names B. Include patient photos if faces are hidden C. Include complaints about specific patients D. Include colleagues' private information Correct Answer: A. Never include patient information or images, even without names Rationale: NCSBN guidelines warn that even de-identified details can identify patients and violate HIPAA and professional standards. Hiding faces is not enough, becaus...