QUESTIONS, MULTIPLE CHOICE & FULL EXPLANATION (NP BOARD REVIEW)
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, 1) A 15 years old high school student with a mild sore throat and low-grade fever
that has persisted for about 3 weeks. She reports general malaise, fatigue, and loss
of appetite. The NP suspects mononucleosis. Which of the following is the LEAST
appropriate intervention?
a. Palpate the lymph nodes and spleen
b. Examine the posterior oropharynx for petechiae
c. Obtain a CBC, throat culture, and heterophil antibody test.
d. Obtain an urinalyses and serum for LFTs and amylase
Verified Explanation : mononucleosis is a symptomatic infection caused by the Epstein-
Bar virus. Common is people 15-24 years of age. Common signs and symptoms
following incubation period (1-2 months) include fatigue, chills, malaise, anorexia,
white tonsillar exudates and lymphadenopathy or posterior cervical region.
Splenomegaly can be present. A maculopapular or occasionally a petechial rash occurs
in less than 15% of patients. A diagnosis is usually made using the Mono spot. In
addition, neutropenia and lymphocytosis are usually detected in the CBC.
2) A 32 years old male patient complaint of urinary frequency and burning on
urination for 3 days. Urinalyses reveals bacteriuria and positive nitrites. He denies any
past hx. Of urinary tract infections. The initial treatment should be:
a. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Sulfatrim) for 7-10 day
b. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for 3-5 days
c. Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
d. 750 mg ciprofloxacin as a one-time dose
Verified Explanation : trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMPS) is usually n
appropriate medication to treat urinary tract infections in most patients. In the case
of community resistance to TMPS
>20%^, another medication should be substituted. In men, the appropriate length of
time is 7-10 days. Women may be treated for 3 days for uncomplicated UTI
3) Which agent is most effective for the treatment of nodulocystic acne?
a. Benzoyl peroxide (Benzac)
b. Retinoic acid (Retin A)
c. Topical tetracycline
d. Isotretinoin)
Verified Explanation : Isotretinoin (Accutane) is a systemic agent indicated for
treatment with severe inflammatory acne. Guidelines for its use must be clearly
understood by the patient. A woman of childbearing age must use an effective method
of contraception because isotretinoin is teratogenic. There are many restrictions in
prescribing this medication because of the teratogenic effects is given during
pregnancy. Therefore, it is a pregnancy category X.
4) An 18 y/o woman is taking a combined hormonal oral contraceptive. She
should be instructed to use a backup method for the prevention of pregnancy
a. Throughout the week of placebo pills
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b. If prescribed topiramate (Topamax) for the treatment of migraines.
c. If prescribed amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) for a sinus infection
d. if she forgets to take a single dose of the contraceptive
Verified Explanation : Anticonvulsant including phenytoin (Dilantin), carbamazepine
(Tegretol), primidone (Mysoline), topiramate (Topamax) and oxcarbazepine
(Trileptal) reduce the effectiveness of contraceptives. Depo-medroxyprogesterone
acetate injections or levonorgestrel- releasing intrauterine devices would be a better
method of contraceptive for patients taking anticonvulsants. Most commonly used
antibiotics have not been proven to reduce the effectiveness of contraceptives.
Rifampin is an exception, and additional …. Be used by women taking this drug and
using oral contraceptives, transdermal, or vaginal ring preparations.
Additional backup contraception should be used if taking antifungal agents. No
additional protection is needed thought the week of placebo pills. Missing one single
dose of contraceptive does not require additional protection, missing more than one
doses does.
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