NBEO Part II Practice Exam Questions
And Correct Answers (Verified Answers)
Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant
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1. A 24-year-old presents with pain on eye movement following a recent
viral illness. Vision is 20/80 OD with decreased color saturation. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Optic disc drusen
B. Optic neuritis
C. AION
D. Chronic open-angle glaucoma
Rationale: Demyelinating optic neuritis presents with reduced VA, pain on
eye movement, and dyschromatopsia, commonly following viral illness.
2. A patient with long-standing diabetes shows microaneurysms, dot-blot
hemorrhages, and hard exudates. No neovascularization is present. What
stage is this?
,A. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
B. Moderate non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy
C. Mild non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy
D. Severe non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy
Rationale: Moderate NPDR includes microaneurysms, INTRaretinal
hemorrhages, and hard exudates without neovascularization.
3. A 65-year-old hypertensive patient shows cotton-wool spots, flame
hemorrhages, and AV nicking. What grade of hypertensive retinopathy is
this?
A. Grade 1
B. Grade 2
C. Grade 3
D. Grade 4
Rationale: Grade 3 includes cotton-wool spots and flame hemorrhages
along with vessel changes such as AV nicking.
4. A patient reports flashes and floaters. Dilated exam reveals Shafer’s
sign. What is the next step?
A. Recommend artificial tears
B. Follow-up in 1 week
C. Gonioscopy
,D. Same-day referral for retinal evaluation
Rationale: Shafer’s sign indicates pigment in vitreous, highly suspicious for
retinal tear/retinal detachment, requiring urgent evaluation.
5. A lesion at the optic chiasm most commonly produces which defect?
A. Right homonymous hemianopia
B. Bitemporal hemianopia
C. Superior quadrantanopia
D. Junctional scotoma
Rationale: Chiasmal compression typically damages crossing nasal fibers,
causing bitemporal hemianopia.
6. A 55-year-old with temporal headache, jaw claudication, and ESR 90
mm/hr should receive which immediate management?
A. NSAIDs
B. MRI
C. High-dose systemic steroids
D. Oral antivirals
Rationale: Classic symptoms of giant cell arteritis require immediate
systemic corticosteroids to prevent vision loss.
, 7. A contact lens wearer presents with severe pain, mucopurulent
discharge, and a central corneal ulcer. What is the most likely pathogen?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Candida albicans
D. HSV-1
Rationale: Contact lens–associated keratitis is commonly caused by
Pseudomonas due to its rapid corneal invasion.
8. A 70-year-old shows drusen and RPE changes without CNV. What type
of AMD is this?
A. Wet AMD
B. Dry AMD
C. Hypertensive maculopathy
D. CSR
Rationale: Drusen and RPE abnormalities without neovascularization
indicate dry AMD.
9. A 30-year-old with recurrent anterior uveitis has low back pain
improved by exercise. Which condition is likely?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Behçet disease
And Correct Answers (Verified Answers)
Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant
Download Pdf
1. A 24-year-old presents with pain on eye movement following a recent
viral illness. Vision is 20/80 OD with decreased color saturation. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Optic disc drusen
B. Optic neuritis
C. AION
D. Chronic open-angle glaucoma
Rationale: Demyelinating optic neuritis presents with reduced VA, pain on
eye movement, and dyschromatopsia, commonly following viral illness.
2. A patient with long-standing diabetes shows microaneurysms, dot-blot
hemorrhages, and hard exudates. No neovascularization is present. What
stage is this?
,A. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
B. Moderate non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy
C. Mild non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy
D. Severe non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy
Rationale: Moderate NPDR includes microaneurysms, INTRaretinal
hemorrhages, and hard exudates without neovascularization.
3. A 65-year-old hypertensive patient shows cotton-wool spots, flame
hemorrhages, and AV nicking. What grade of hypertensive retinopathy is
this?
A. Grade 1
B. Grade 2
C. Grade 3
D. Grade 4
Rationale: Grade 3 includes cotton-wool spots and flame hemorrhages
along with vessel changes such as AV nicking.
4. A patient reports flashes and floaters. Dilated exam reveals Shafer’s
sign. What is the next step?
A. Recommend artificial tears
B. Follow-up in 1 week
C. Gonioscopy
,D. Same-day referral for retinal evaluation
Rationale: Shafer’s sign indicates pigment in vitreous, highly suspicious for
retinal tear/retinal detachment, requiring urgent evaluation.
5. A lesion at the optic chiasm most commonly produces which defect?
A. Right homonymous hemianopia
B. Bitemporal hemianopia
C. Superior quadrantanopia
D. Junctional scotoma
Rationale: Chiasmal compression typically damages crossing nasal fibers,
causing bitemporal hemianopia.
6. A 55-year-old with temporal headache, jaw claudication, and ESR 90
mm/hr should receive which immediate management?
A. NSAIDs
B. MRI
C. High-dose systemic steroids
D. Oral antivirals
Rationale: Classic symptoms of giant cell arteritis require immediate
systemic corticosteroids to prevent vision loss.
, 7. A contact lens wearer presents with severe pain, mucopurulent
discharge, and a central corneal ulcer. What is the most likely pathogen?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Candida albicans
D. HSV-1
Rationale: Contact lens–associated keratitis is commonly caused by
Pseudomonas due to its rapid corneal invasion.
8. A 70-year-old shows drusen and RPE changes without CNV. What type
of AMD is this?
A. Wet AMD
B. Dry AMD
C. Hypertensive maculopathy
D. CSR
Rationale: Drusen and RPE abnormalities without neovascularization
indicate dry AMD.
9. A 30-year-old with recurrent anterior uveitis has low back pain
improved by exercise. Which condition is likely?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Behçet disease
