NUR 2755 MULTIDIMENSIONAL CARE IV FINAL EXAM | 2026/2027
Rasmussen University Multidimensional Care IV Final Exam with Complete Questions & Verified
Answers | Latest Version
Overview
This 2026/2027 updated resource contains the latest Rasmussen University NUR 2755
Multidimensional Care IV Final Examination with the exact 100 questions and verified
answers, following current Rasmussen College of Nursing curriculum standards, NCLEX-RN® test plan
integration, and evidence-based nursing practice across complex healthcare scenarios.
Key Features
Actual Rasmussen MDC 4 final exam format with the official 100 questions
Comprehensive coverage of complex patient care and advanced nursing interventions
Updated 2026/2027 clinical practice guidelines and treatment protocols
Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) style integration throughout
Priority setting and clinical judgment applications
Core Content Areas (100 Total Questions)
Complex Patient Management (30 Qs)
Advanced Clinical Judgment (25 Qs)
Priority Setting & Delegation (20 Qs)
Professional Practice & Ethics (15 Qs)
Healthcare Systems & Quality Improvement (10 Qs)
Detailed Content Breakdown
Multisystem Organ Failure & Critical Care (18 Qs)
Advanced Cardiovascular & Respiratory Management (16 Qs)
Complex Neurological & Trauma Care (15 Qs)
Oncological & Immunological Disorders (12 Qs)
End-of-Life & Palliative Care Decisions (10 Qs)
Medication Safety & High-Alert Medications (9 Qs)
Interprofessional Collaboration & Communication (8 Qs)
Legal & Ethical Dilemmas in Complex Care (7 Qs)
Quality Improvement & Patient Safety Initiatives (5 Qs)
NGN Item Types Included
Matrix Items – Multiple selection with rationale for complex interventions
Bowtie Items – Risk assessment and complication prevention
Highlight Text – Identification of critical assessment findings
Extended Multiple Response – Complex clinical judgment scenarios
, Trend Items – Recognition of changing patient status
Drag-and-Drop – Prioritization of nursing actions in emergencies
Answer Format
Correct answers are marked in bold green and include:
● Rasmussen University course competency applications
● Clinical judgment model step implementations
● Evidence-based practice guideline citations
● Priority setting frameworks (ABCs, Maslow's, least restrictive)
● Delegation principles based on scope of practice
● Ethical decision-making using nursing code of ethics
Updates for 2026/2027
● Reflects 2026/2027 Rasmussen College of Nursing curriculum revisions
● Enhanced NGN item type integration and clinical judgment measurement
● Updated sepsis management and early warning system protocols
● New telehealth applications in complex care management
● Revised health equity and social determinants of health considerations
● Updated medication safety and high-alert drug protocols
● New technology integration in critical care environments
● Revised interprofessional team communication and collaboration models
Full Exam: 100 Questions with Verified Answers & Rationales
1. A patient in the ICU with septic shock has a MAP of 58 mmHg, lactate of 5.2 mmol/L, and
oliguria. Which intervention is the priority according to the 2026 Surviving Sepsis
Campaign?
A. Administer furosemide 20 mg IV
B. Start norepinephrine infusion
C. Administer 30 mL/kg crystalloid fluid bolus
D. Obtain blood cultures before antibiotics
Rationale: The first hour "Sepsis Bundle" prioritizes fluid resuscitation (30 mL/kg crystalloid) for
hypotension or lactate ≥4 mmol/L. Antibiotics and cultures should occur within the same hour, but
hypoperfusion requires immediate volume expansion (Surviving Sepsis 2026).
2. A patient 2 days post-op from abdominal surgery develops sudden dyspnea, tachycardia
(HR 128), and oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. Which assessment finding is most
indicative of pulmonary embolism?
, A. Crackles in lung bases
B. Productive cough
C. Pleuritic chest pain and tachypnea
D. Wheezing on expiration
Rationale: PE classically presents with pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, tachypnea, and hypoxia. Crackles
suggest pneumonia or atelectasis; wheezing suggests bronchospasm. Early recognition aligns with
Rasmussen clinical judgment competency.
3. Which patient should the nurse assess first during shift report?
A. A patient with heart failure (BNP 450) requesting pain medication
B. A post-stroke patient with slurred speech and new right-sided weakness
C. A patient with traumatic brain injury and ICP of 28 mmHg
D. A patient with DKA (glucose 350) receiving insulin infusion
Rationale: Elevated ICP (>20 mmHg) is life-threatening and can lead to brain herniation. ABCs and
neurological stability take priority. The post-stroke patient requires urgent evaluation but is less
immediately critical than uncontrolled ICP.
4. A nurse delegates vital signs to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which patient
is appropriate for this delegation?
A. A patient 1 hour post-admission from the ED with chest pain
B. A stable patient on post-op day 2 from hip replacement
C. A patient with sepsis and new-onset atrial fibrillation
D. A patient with acute asthma exacerbation
Rationale: UAPs may obtain vitals on stable patients. Patients with acute or unstable conditions (chest
pain, sepsis, asthma) require assessment by licensed nurses who can interpret findings and intervene.
This follows NCSBN delegation principles.
5. A patient with advanced cancer and DNR/DNI status develops severe respiratory
distress. The family insists on intubation. What is the nurse’s best action?
A. Prepare for intubation to respect family wishes
B. Clarify the code status with the family and involve the ethics committee if needed
C. Administer high-dose opioids to sedate the patient
D. Call respiratory therapy for non-invasive ventilation
Rationale: The DNR/DNI order must be honored. The nurse should compassionately explain the order,
ensure the family understands, and escalate to the provider or ethics team if conflict persists. This aligns
with ANA Code of Ethics Provision 3.
6. A patient receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin has an aPTT of 110 seconds
(therapeutic range 60–80). The nurse should:
Rasmussen University Multidimensional Care IV Final Exam with Complete Questions & Verified
Answers | Latest Version
Overview
This 2026/2027 updated resource contains the latest Rasmussen University NUR 2755
Multidimensional Care IV Final Examination with the exact 100 questions and verified
answers, following current Rasmussen College of Nursing curriculum standards, NCLEX-RN® test plan
integration, and evidence-based nursing practice across complex healthcare scenarios.
Key Features
Actual Rasmussen MDC 4 final exam format with the official 100 questions
Comprehensive coverage of complex patient care and advanced nursing interventions
Updated 2026/2027 clinical practice guidelines and treatment protocols
Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) style integration throughout
Priority setting and clinical judgment applications
Core Content Areas (100 Total Questions)
Complex Patient Management (30 Qs)
Advanced Clinical Judgment (25 Qs)
Priority Setting & Delegation (20 Qs)
Professional Practice & Ethics (15 Qs)
Healthcare Systems & Quality Improvement (10 Qs)
Detailed Content Breakdown
Multisystem Organ Failure & Critical Care (18 Qs)
Advanced Cardiovascular & Respiratory Management (16 Qs)
Complex Neurological & Trauma Care (15 Qs)
Oncological & Immunological Disorders (12 Qs)
End-of-Life & Palliative Care Decisions (10 Qs)
Medication Safety & High-Alert Medications (9 Qs)
Interprofessional Collaboration & Communication (8 Qs)
Legal & Ethical Dilemmas in Complex Care (7 Qs)
Quality Improvement & Patient Safety Initiatives (5 Qs)
NGN Item Types Included
Matrix Items – Multiple selection with rationale for complex interventions
Bowtie Items – Risk assessment and complication prevention
Highlight Text – Identification of critical assessment findings
Extended Multiple Response – Complex clinical judgment scenarios
, Trend Items – Recognition of changing patient status
Drag-and-Drop – Prioritization of nursing actions in emergencies
Answer Format
Correct answers are marked in bold green and include:
● Rasmussen University course competency applications
● Clinical judgment model step implementations
● Evidence-based practice guideline citations
● Priority setting frameworks (ABCs, Maslow's, least restrictive)
● Delegation principles based on scope of practice
● Ethical decision-making using nursing code of ethics
Updates for 2026/2027
● Reflects 2026/2027 Rasmussen College of Nursing curriculum revisions
● Enhanced NGN item type integration and clinical judgment measurement
● Updated sepsis management and early warning system protocols
● New telehealth applications in complex care management
● Revised health equity and social determinants of health considerations
● Updated medication safety and high-alert drug protocols
● New technology integration in critical care environments
● Revised interprofessional team communication and collaboration models
Full Exam: 100 Questions with Verified Answers & Rationales
1. A patient in the ICU with septic shock has a MAP of 58 mmHg, lactate of 5.2 mmol/L, and
oliguria. Which intervention is the priority according to the 2026 Surviving Sepsis
Campaign?
A. Administer furosemide 20 mg IV
B. Start norepinephrine infusion
C. Administer 30 mL/kg crystalloid fluid bolus
D. Obtain blood cultures before antibiotics
Rationale: The first hour "Sepsis Bundle" prioritizes fluid resuscitation (30 mL/kg crystalloid) for
hypotension or lactate ≥4 mmol/L. Antibiotics and cultures should occur within the same hour, but
hypoperfusion requires immediate volume expansion (Surviving Sepsis 2026).
2. A patient 2 days post-op from abdominal surgery develops sudden dyspnea, tachycardia
(HR 128), and oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. Which assessment finding is most
indicative of pulmonary embolism?
, A. Crackles in lung bases
B. Productive cough
C. Pleuritic chest pain and tachypnea
D. Wheezing on expiration
Rationale: PE classically presents with pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, tachypnea, and hypoxia. Crackles
suggest pneumonia or atelectasis; wheezing suggests bronchospasm. Early recognition aligns with
Rasmussen clinical judgment competency.
3. Which patient should the nurse assess first during shift report?
A. A patient with heart failure (BNP 450) requesting pain medication
B. A post-stroke patient with slurred speech and new right-sided weakness
C. A patient with traumatic brain injury and ICP of 28 mmHg
D. A patient with DKA (glucose 350) receiving insulin infusion
Rationale: Elevated ICP (>20 mmHg) is life-threatening and can lead to brain herniation. ABCs and
neurological stability take priority. The post-stroke patient requires urgent evaluation but is less
immediately critical than uncontrolled ICP.
4. A nurse delegates vital signs to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which patient
is appropriate for this delegation?
A. A patient 1 hour post-admission from the ED with chest pain
B. A stable patient on post-op day 2 from hip replacement
C. A patient with sepsis and new-onset atrial fibrillation
D. A patient with acute asthma exacerbation
Rationale: UAPs may obtain vitals on stable patients. Patients with acute or unstable conditions (chest
pain, sepsis, asthma) require assessment by licensed nurses who can interpret findings and intervene.
This follows NCSBN delegation principles.
5. A patient with advanced cancer and DNR/DNI status develops severe respiratory
distress. The family insists on intubation. What is the nurse’s best action?
A. Prepare for intubation to respect family wishes
B. Clarify the code status with the family and involve the ethics committee if needed
C. Administer high-dose opioids to sedate the patient
D. Call respiratory therapy for non-invasive ventilation
Rationale: The DNR/DNI order must be honored. The nurse should compassionately explain the order,
ensure the family understands, and escalate to the provider or ethics team if conflict persists. This aligns
with ANA Code of Ethics Provision 3.
6. A patient receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin has an aPTT of 110 seconds
(therapeutic range 60–80). The nurse should:
