1
BLOOD BANK REVIEW KEY CONCEPTS FOR
FINAL EXAM REAL QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS-2026
LATEST VERSION
1. The minimum hemoglobin concentration in a fingerstick from a male
donor is:
a.12.0 g/dL (120g/L)
b. 12.5g/dL (125g/L)
c. 13.5g/dL (135g/L)
d. 15.0g/dL (150g/L)
2. A cause for permanent deferral of blood donation is:
a. Diabetes
b. Residence in an endemic malaria region
c. History of jaundice of uncertain cause
d. History of therapeutic rabies vaccine
3. Which of the following prospective donors would be accepted for
donation?
a. 32-year-old woman who received a transfusion in a
complicated delivery 5 months previously
b. 19-year-old sailor who has been stateside for 9 months
and stopped taking his anti-malarial medication 9 months
previously
c. 22-year old college student who has a temperature of
99.2F(37.3C) and states that he feels well, but is
nervous about donating
d. 45-year old woman who has just recovered from a bladder
infection and is still taking antibiotics
4. Which of the following constitutes permanent rejection status of a
donor?
a. A tattoo 5 months previously
b. Recent close contact with a patient with viral hepatitis
c. 2 units of blood transfused 4 months previously
d. Confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously
5. According to the AABB standards, which of the following donors
may be accepted as a blood donor?
a. Traveled to an area endemic for malaria 9 months previously
b. Spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months
previously
c. Resides with a known hepatitis patient
d. Received a blood transfusion 22 weeks previously
6. Below are the results of a history obtained froma prospective
female blood donor: age: 16; temperature 99.0F(37.2C) Hct: 36%;
History: tetanus toxoid immunization 1 week previously. How
many of the above results excludes this donor from giving blood
for a routine transfusion?
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a. None
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
7. Prior to blood donation, the intended venipuncture site must
be cleaned with a scrub solution containing:
a. Hypochlorite
b. Isopropyl alcohol
c. 10% acetone
d. PVP iodine complex
8. All donor blood testing must include:
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a. Complete RH phenotyping
b. Anti-CMV testing
c. Direct anti-globulin test
d. Serological test for syphilis
9. The most common cause of posttransfusion hepatitis can be
detected in donors by testing for:
a. Anti-HCV
b. HBsAg
c. Anti-HAV IgM
d. Anti-HBe
10. The western blot is a confirmatory test for the presence of:
a. CMV antibody
b. Anti-HIV-1
c. HBsAg
d. Serum protein abnormalities
11. The test that is currently used to detect donors who are infected
with the AIDS virus is:
a. Anti-HBc
b. Anti-HIV 1,2
c. HBsAg
d. ALT
12. A commonly used screening method for anti-HIV-1 detection is:
a. Latex agglutination
b. Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
c. Thin-layer-chromatography (TLC)
d. Enzyme-labeled immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
13. Rejuvenation of a unit of red blood cells is a method used to:
a. Remove antibody attached to rbcs
b. Inactivate viruses and bacteria
c. Restore 2,3-DPG and ATP to normal levels
d. Filter blood clots and other debris
14. A unit of packed cells is split into 2 aliquots under closed sterile
conditions at 8 AM. The expiration time for each aliquot is now:
a. 4PM on the same day
b. 8PM on the same day
c. 8AM the next morning
d. The original date of the unsplit unit
15. A unit of red blood cells expiring in 35 days is split into 5 small
aliquots using a sterile pediatric quad set and a sterile connecting
device. Each aliquot must be labeled as expiring in:
a. 6 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 5 days
d. 35 days
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16. When platelets are stored on a rotator set on an open bench top,
the ambient air temperature must be recorded:
a. Once a day
b. Twice a day
c. Every 4 hours
d. Every hour
17. Which of the following is the correct storage temperature for the
component listed?
a. Cryoprecipitated AHF, 4oC
b. Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP), -20oC
c. Red Blood Cells, Frozen, -40oC
d. Platelets, 37oC
18. A unit of red blood cells is issued at 9:00 AM. At 9:00 AM the unit
is returned to the Blood Bank. The container has not been
entered, but the unit has not been refrigerated during this time
span. The best course of action for the technologist is to:
a. Culture the unit for bacterial contamination
b. Discard the unit if not used within 24 hours
c. Store the unit at room temperature
d. Record the return and place the unit back into inventory
19. The optimum storage temperature for red blood cells, frozen is:
a. -80oC
b. -20oC
c. -12oC
d. 4oC
20. The optimum storage temperature for red cells is:
a. -80oC
b. -20oC
c. -12oC
d. 4oC
21. If the seal is entered on a unit of Red Blood Cells stored at 1oC
to 6oC, what is the maximum allowable storage period, in
hours?
a. 6
b. 24
c. 48
d. 72
22. The optimum storage temperature for cryoprecipitated AHF is:
a. -20oC
b. -12oC
c. 4oC
d. 22oC
23. Cryoprecipitated AHF must be transfused within what period
of time following thawing and pooling?
a. 4 hours
b. 8 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 24 hours
24. Platelets prepared in a polyolefin type container, stored at
22o-24oC in 50 mL of plasma, and gently agitated can be used
for up to:
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BLOOD BANK REVIEW KEY CONCEPTS FOR
FINAL EXAM REAL QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS-2026
LATEST VERSION
1. The minimum hemoglobin concentration in a fingerstick from a male
donor is:
a.12.0 g/dL (120g/L)
b. 12.5g/dL (125g/L)
c. 13.5g/dL (135g/L)
d. 15.0g/dL (150g/L)
2. A cause for permanent deferral of blood donation is:
a. Diabetes
b. Residence in an endemic malaria region
c. History of jaundice of uncertain cause
d. History of therapeutic rabies vaccine
3. Which of the following prospective donors would be accepted for
donation?
a. 32-year-old woman who received a transfusion in a
complicated delivery 5 months previously
b. 19-year-old sailor who has been stateside for 9 months
and stopped taking his anti-malarial medication 9 months
previously
c. 22-year old college student who has a temperature of
99.2F(37.3C) and states that he feels well, but is
nervous about donating
d. 45-year old woman who has just recovered from a bladder
infection and is still taking antibiotics
4. Which of the following constitutes permanent rejection status of a
donor?
a. A tattoo 5 months previously
b. Recent close contact with a patient with viral hepatitis
c. 2 units of blood transfused 4 months previously
d. Confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously
5. According to the AABB standards, which of the following donors
may be accepted as a blood donor?
a. Traveled to an area endemic for malaria 9 months previously
b. Spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months
previously
c. Resides with a known hepatitis patient
d. Received a blood transfusion 22 weeks previously
6. Below are the results of a history obtained froma prospective
female blood donor: age: 16; temperature 99.0F(37.2C) Hct: 36%;
History: tetanus toxoid immunization 1 week previously. How
many of the above results excludes this donor from giving blood
for a routine transfusion?
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a. None
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
7. Prior to blood donation, the intended venipuncture site must
be cleaned with a scrub solution containing:
a. Hypochlorite
b. Isopropyl alcohol
c. 10% acetone
d. PVP iodine complex
8. All donor blood testing must include:
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a. Complete RH phenotyping
b. Anti-CMV testing
c. Direct anti-globulin test
d. Serological test for syphilis
9. The most common cause of posttransfusion hepatitis can be
detected in donors by testing for:
a. Anti-HCV
b. HBsAg
c. Anti-HAV IgM
d. Anti-HBe
10. The western blot is a confirmatory test for the presence of:
a. CMV antibody
b. Anti-HIV-1
c. HBsAg
d. Serum protein abnormalities
11. The test that is currently used to detect donors who are infected
with the AIDS virus is:
a. Anti-HBc
b. Anti-HIV 1,2
c. HBsAg
d. ALT
12. A commonly used screening method for anti-HIV-1 detection is:
a. Latex agglutination
b. Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
c. Thin-layer-chromatography (TLC)
d. Enzyme-labeled immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
13. Rejuvenation of a unit of red blood cells is a method used to:
a. Remove antibody attached to rbcs
b. Inactivate viruses and bacteria
c. Restore 2,3-DPG and ATP to normal levels
d. Filter blood clots and other debris
14. A unit of packed cells is split into 2 aliquots under closed sterile
conditions at 8 AM. The expiration time for each aliquot is now:
a. 4PM on the same day
b. 8PM on the same day
c. 8AM the next morning
d. The original date of the unsplit unit
15. A unit of red blood cells expiring in 35 days is split into 5 small
aliquots using a sterile pediatric quad set and a sterile connecting
device. Each aliquot must be labeled as expiring in:
a. 6 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 5 days
d. 35 days
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16. When platelets are stored on a rotator set on an open bench top,
the ambient air temperature must be recorded:
a. Once a day
b. Twice a day
c. Every 4 hours
d. Every hour
17. Which of the following is the correct storage temperature for the
component listed?
a. Cryoprecipitated AHF, 4oC
b. Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP), -20oC
c. Red Blood Cells, Frozen, -40oC
d. Platelets, 37oC
18. A unit of red blood cells is issued at 9:00 AM. At 9:00 AM the unit
is returned to the Blood Bank. The container has not been
entered, but the unit has not been refrigerated during this time
span. The best course of action for the technologist is to:
a. Culture the unit for bacterial contamination
b. Discard the unit if not used within 24 hours
c. Store the unit at room temperature
d. Record the return and place the unit back into inventory
19. The optimum storage temperature for red blood cells, frozen is:
a. -80oC
b. -20oC
c. -12oC
d. 4oC
20. The optimum storage temperature for red cells is:
a. -80oC
b. -20oC
c. -12oC
d. 4oC
21. If the seal is entered on a unit of Red Blood Cells stored at 1oC
to 6oC, what is the maximum allowable storage period, in
hours?
a. 6
b. 24
c. 48
d. 72
22. The optimum storage temperature for cryoprecipitated AHF is:
a. -20oC
b. -12oC
c. 4oC
d. 22oC
23. Cryoprecipitated AHF must be transfused within what period
of time following thawing and pooling?
a. 4 hours
b. 8 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 24 hours
24. Platelets prepared in a polyolefin type container, stored at
22o-24oC in 50 mL of plasma, and gently agitated can be used
for up to:
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