1
DOCTOR OF MEDICINE OPD 1 OPERATIVE DENTISTRY REAL EXAM
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS-2026 LATEST VERSION
1. The oldest and most widely used method of tooth 7. GV Black simply classified cavities as:
nomenclature is: A. Two classes of smooth surface and three classes
A. Universal system of pit and fissure lesions
B. FDI system B. Three classes of smooth surface and two classes
C. Two digit system of pit and fissure lesions
D. Palmer system C One class of pit and fissure and four classes of
.
smooth surface lesions
2. The system to designate a tooth which is simple
D. None of the above
to understand and to teach as well as readily
communicable in print and by wire is: 8. Cavities that occur exclusively in posterior teeth
A. Zsigmondy system are:
B. Universal system A. Class 1 cavities
C. FDI/ Two digit system B. Class 5 cavities
D. None of the above C. Class 2 cavities
D. Class 4 cavities
3. In a system, a tooth is designated number ‘46’,
the tooth is: 9. The class(es) of cavity which occurs both in
anterior and posterior teeth is/are:
A. Permanent maxillary right first molar
B. Permanent maxillary right 2nd molar A. Class 3
C. Permanent mandibular right first molar B. Class 2
D. Permanent mandibular left first molar C. Class 1 and 6
D. Class 4
4. A mesial proximal carious lesion of the
mandibular right Ist molar is indicated by: 10. Removal of deep, pulp encroaching caries
A. 461 should be made using:
B. 462 A. High rotational speeds
C. 463 B. Low rotational speeds
D. 464 C. Very high rotational speeds
D. All of the above
5. “Double inverted cone” type of penetration of
11. Pulpal damage can result from:
dental caries is seen in:
A. Lack of coolant
A. Smooth surface caries
B. Excessive hand pressure
B. Pit and fissure caries
C. Dull instrument
C. Both of the above
D. All of the above
D. None of the above
12. Number of point angles in ‘class 3’ cavity
6. Pit and fissure lesions are represented by:
preparation is:
A. Apex of cone facing each other
A. 4
B. Base of cone facing each other
B. 5
C. Double inverted cone C. 3
D. None of the above D. 11
1 D 2 C 3 C 4 A 5 A 6 B 7 C 8 C
9 C 10 B 11 D 12 C
,384 Textbook of Operative Dentistry
13. Diagnosis of cracked tooth syndrome is made 20. In panoramic radiography, there is usually
by: overlapping in:
A. Biting on solid object and release of pressure A. Molar region
B. Only during bites B. Incisor region
C. Percussion C. Bicuspid area
D. All of the above D. None of the above
14. Most commonly fractured cusp is: 21. All of the following are true regarding panoramic
radiographs except:
A. Buccal cusps of maxillary molars
A. Gag-reflex problems are eliminated
B. Buccal cusps of mandibular molars
B. Relative positions of teeth are clear
C. Lingual cusps of maxillary molars
C. There is no overlapping in bicuspid area
D. Lingual cusps of mandibular molars
D. There is minimal distortion
15. Teeth most commonly congenitally absent 22. Development of smooth surface dental caries is
are: due to all of the following except:
A. Mandibular 2nd bicuspids A. Low salivary flow
B. Maxillary lateral incisors B. Frequent sucrose consumption
C. Mandibular 1st bicuspids C. Radiation therapy
D. Mandibular primary 2nd molar D. Amount of sucrose consumption
16. Radiolucent material among the following 23. Smooth surface caries is mainly caused by:
is: A. Lactobacilli
A. Amalgam B. Streptococcus mutans
B. Glass ionomer C. Actinomyces
C. Some composite resin D. All of the above
D. Calcium hydroxide 24. The purposes of cavity preparation is/are:
17. Proximal carious lesion occurs mostly: A. Removal of all the defects of enamel, dentin and
A. Just occlusal to contact area cementum
B. To locate the margins of restoration as
B. Just cervical to contact area
conservatively as possible
C. Irrespective of contact area
C. To allow for esthetic and functional placement
D. None of the above
of restorative material
18. Complete mouth examination requires how many D. All of the above
radiographs? 25. Patients with which of the following minimum
A. 6 bitewing and 14 periapical films salivary levels of Streptococcus mutans are
B. 4 bitewing and 12 periapical films considered as high risk for dental caries:
C. 4 bitewing and 18 periapical films A. Above 104 CFU/ml
D. 6 bitewing and 12 periapical films B. Above 106 CFU/ml
C. Above 108 CFU/ml
19. Posterior bitewing radiographs are needed to
D. Below 104 CFU/ml
show:
A. Virgin or secondary interproximal carious 26. A patient with less than 104 CFU of lactobacilli
lesion per ml of saliva is associated with:
B. Contour of restoration A. High caries risk group
C. Pulp size and calcification B. Medium caries risk group
D. All of the above C. Low caries risk group
D. None of the above
13 A 14 D 15 B 16 D 17 B 18 C 19 D 20 C 21 C 22 D
23 B 24 D 25 B 26 C
, Multiple Choice Questions 385
27. According to Klock and Krasse, the high caries 35. Basic instrument formula consists of:
risk group comprised of: A. Four digits/units
A. 25% of population B. Three digits/units
B. 23% of population C. Five units digits/unit
C. 28% of population D. All of the above digits/unit
D. 32% of population
36. In a three unit formula, the second unit
28. The first anti-gingivitis oral rinse approved by
denotes:
FDA and ADA council is:
A. 2% chlorhexidine gluconate A. Blade width in mm
B. 0.2% chlorhexidine gluconate B. Blade width in cm
C. 0.12% chlorhexidine gluconate C. Blade length in mm
D. 1% chlorhexidine gluconate D. Blade angle in centigrade
29. The method of choice for removal of 37. The first unit of basic instrument formula
interproximal plaque is: denotes:
A. Unitufted waxed floss A. Blade width in mm
B. Multitufted unwaxed floss B. Blade width in 1/10 mm
C. Multitufted waxed floss C. Blade length in 1/10 mm
D. Unitufted unwaxed floss D. Blade length in mm
30. Sealants are not recommended routinely on: 38. The fourth unit added to the basic three unit
A. Primary molars instrument formula placed at 2nd position
B. Over another restorative material denotes:
C. Interproximal lesions
A. Blade length in mm
D. Carious pit or fissure
B. Blade angle in centigrade
E. Al l of the above
C. Angle formed between cutting edge and central
31. Percentage of pit and fissure caries in children axis of the shaft
is: D. Width of blade in 1/10 mm
A. 60 to 70 % B. 50 to 60 %
39. In general sense, all the hand cutting instruments
C. 80 to 90 % D. 40 to 60 % are:
32. Incidence of dental caries in young children is A. Hatchet
most effectively reduced by: B. Chisels
A. Sealants C. Excavators
B. Oral prophylaxis D. None of the above
C. Flossing
40. The spoon excavator is:
D. None of the above
A. Chisel
33. Dental equipment refers to all of the following B. Modified hatchet
except: C. Modified chisel
A. Dental chair B. X-ray units D. Hatchet
C. Operating unit D. Excavators
41. Frequently used instruments for placing reten-
34. The position or manner of use of an instrument tive grooves for amalgam and composite resins
is described by: are:
A. Class A. Small round burs nos. ¼ to ½
B. Subclass B. Small inverted cone bur
C. Suborder C. Small chisels
D. Order D. Round bur nos. 2 and 4
27 B 28 C 29 C 30 E 31 C 32 A 33 D 34 C 35 B 36 C
37 B 38 C 39 C 40 B 41 A
, 386 Textbook of Operative Dentistry
42. Rotary cutting instruments should be applied for 50. In order to assume a sound enamel margin, the
caries removal and cavity preparation refinement cavosurface angle of occlusal wall of Class 5
in the range of: cavity should be:
A. Ultra high speed A. 110° B. 90°
B. Ultra speed C. 120-130° D. 45°
C. High speed
D. Conventional speed 51. Which of the following statement is true
regarding acid etching except:
43. Dr GV Black, father of operative dentistry had
following qualification: A. It is done with 37% or 50% phosphoric acid
B. It results in increased surface area
A. No professional qualification
B. Only honorary dental qualification C. It provides higher surface energy
C. Only honorary medical qualification D. Etching for an additional period results in
D. Both honorary dental and honorary medical greater penetration of polymers
qualification
52. There is a complete remineralization of the acid-
44. The most reliable sterilization device is: etched enamel after the acid treatment, if exposed
A. Immersion in 100°C water for 30 minutes to saliva within:
B. Soaking in activated 2% alkaline glutaral- A. 30 days
dehyde for 10 minutes B. 45 days
C. Autoclave C. 60 days
D. Steam under pressure for 35 pounds for 15
D. 65 days
minutes
53. Which of the following is/are true regarding
45. Autoclave cycle is achieved with the steam under
enamel?
pressure of:
A. 15 pounds and 121°C for 15 minutes A. It exhibits permeability
B. 35 pounds and 258°F for 5 minutes B. It is about 5 to 20 times more resistant to
C. Both of the above abrasion than dentin
D. 25 pounds and 131°C for 10 minutes C. It’s KHN is 343
D. All of the above
46. Chemiclave is:
A. Steam pressure sterilization 54. The number of dentinal tubules ranges from:
B. Chemical vapor pressure sterilization A. 30,000 to 70,000/mm2
C. Drug heat sterilization B. 20,000 to 60,000/mm2
D. None of the above C. 3500 to 7000/mm2
47. Instruments that cannot withstand autoclaving D. None of the above
may be sterilized effectively with: 55. All of the following statements are true except:
A. 2 % glutaraldehyde A. Class (type) C and Class (type) D deep cavities
B. 1 % sodium hypochlorite does not need liners
C. Ethylene oxide gas B. Calcium hydroxide serves the function of liner
D. 70% ethyl alcohol C. Liners minimize or prevent microleakage
48. Knoop hardness number of enamel is: D. Liners provide thermal protection
A. 241 B. 51 56. Which of the following is contraindicated
C. 68 D. 343 beneath composite resins as liner/ base?
49. KHN of dentin and cementum are respectively: A. Calcium hydroxide
B. Zinc oxide-eugenol
A. 68 and 343 B. 68 and 40
C. Glass ionomer
C. 48 and 64 D. 58 and 30
D. None of the above
42 D 43 D 44 C 45 A 46 B 47 C 48 D 49 B 50 C
51 D 52 B 53 D 54 A 55 A 56 B
DOCTOR OF MEDICINE OPD 1 OPERATIVE DENTISTRY REAL EXAM
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS-2026 LATEST VERSION
1. The oldest and most widely used method of tooth 7. GV Black simply classified cavities as:
nomenclature is: A. Two classes of smooth surface and three classes
A. Universal system of pit and fissure lesions
B. FDI system B. Three classes of smooth surface and two classes
C. Two digit system of pit and fissure lesions
D. Palmer system C One class of pit and fissure and four classes of
.
smooth surface lesions
2. The system to designate a tooth which is simple
D. None of the above
to understand and to teach as well as readily
communicable in print and by wire is: 8. Cavities that occur exclusively in posterior teeth
A. Zsigmondy system are:
B. Universal system A. Class 1 cavities
C. FDI/ Two digit system B. Class 5 cavities
D. None of the above C. Class 2 cavities
D. Class 4 cavities
3. In a system, a tooth is designated number ‘46’,
the tooth is: 9. The class(es) of cavity which occurs both in
anterior and posterior teeth is/are:
A. Permanent maxillary right first molar
B. Permanent maxillary right 2nd molar A. Class 3
C. Permanent mandibular right first molar B. Class 2
D. Permanent mandibular left first molar C. Class 1 and 6
D. Class 4
4. A mesial proximal carious lesion of the
mandibular right Ist molar is indicated by: 10. Removal of deep, pulp encroaching caries
A. 461 should be made using:
B. 462 A. High rotational speeds
C. 463 B. Low rotational speeds
D. 464 C. Very high rotational speeds
D. All of the above
5. “Double inverted cone” type of penetration of
11. Pulpal damage can result from:
dental caries is seen in:
A. Lack of coolant
A. Smooth surface caries
B. Excessive hand pressure
B. Pit and fissure caries
C. Dull instrument
C. Both of the above
D. All of the above
D. None of the above
12. Number of point angles in ‘class 3’ cavity
6. Pit and fissure lesions are represented by:
preparation is:
A. Apex of cone facing each other
A. 4
B. Base of cone facing each other
B. 5
C. Double inverted cone C. 3
D. None of the above D. 11
1 D 2 C 3 C 4 A 5 A 6 B 7 C 8 C
9 C 10 B 11 D 12 C
,384 Textbook of Operative Dentistry
13. Diagnosis of cracked tooth syndrome is made 20. In panoramic radiography, there is usually
by: overlapping in:
A. Biting on solid object and release of pressure A. Molar region
B. Only during bites B. Incisor region
C. Percussion C. Bicuspid area
D. All of the above D. None of the above
14. Most commonly fractured cusp is: 21. All of the following are true regarding panoramic
radiographs except:
A. Buccal cusps of maxillary molars
A. Gag-reflex problems are eliminated
B. Buccal cusps of mandibular molars
B. Relative positions of teeth are clear
C. Lingual cusps of maxillary molars
C. There is no overlapping in bicuspid area
D. Lingual cusps of mandibular molars
D. There is minimal distortion
15. Teeth most commonly congenitally absent 22. Development of smooth surface dental caries is
are: due to all of the following except:
A. Mandibular 2nd bicuspids A. Low salivary flow
B. Maxillary lateral incisors B. Frequent sucrose consumption
C. Mandibular 1st bicuspids C. Radiation therapy
D. Mandibular primary 2nd molar D. Amount of sucrose consumption
16. Radiolucent material among the following 23. Smooth surface caries is mainly caused by:
is: A. Lactobacilli
A. Amalgam B. Streptococcus mutans
B. Glass ionomer C. Actinomyces
C. Some composite resin D. All of the above
D. Calcium hydroxide 24. The purposes of cavity preparation is/are:
17. Proximal carious lesion occurs mostly: A. Removal of all the defects of enamel, dentin and
A. Just occlusal to contact area cementum
B. To locate the margins of restoration as
B. Just cervical to contact area
conservatively as possible
C. Irrespective of contact area
C. To allow for esthetic and functional placement
D. None of the above
of restorative material
18. Complete mouth examination requires how many D. All of the above
radiographs? 25. Patients with which of the following minimum
A. 6 bitewing and 14 periapical films salivary levels of Streptococcus mutans are
B. 4 bitewing and 12 periapical films considered as high risk for dental caries:
C. 4 bitewing and 18 periapical films A. Above 104 CFU/ml
D. 6 bitewing and 12 periapical films B. Above 106 CFU/ml
C. Above 108 CFU/ml
19. Posterior bitewing radiographs are needed to
D. Below 104 CFU/ml
show:
A. Virgin or secondary interproximal carious 26. A patient with less than 104 CFU of lactobacilli
lesion per ml of saliva is associated with:
B. Contour of restoration A. High caries risk group
C. Pulp size and calcification B. Medium caries risk group
D. All of the above C. Low caries risk group
D. None of the above
13 A 14 D 15 B 16 D 17 B 18 C 19 D 20 C 21 C 22 D
23 B 24 D 25 B 26 C
, Multiple Choice Questions 385
27. According to Klock and Krasse, the high caries 35. Basic instrument formula consists of:
risk group comprised of: A. Four digits/units
A. 25% of population B. Three digits/units
B. 23% of population C. Five units digits/unit
C. 28% of population D. All of the above digits/unit
D. 32% of population
36. In a three unit formula, the second unit
28. The first anti-gingivitis oral rinse approved by
denotes:
FDA and ADA council is:
A. 2% chlorhexidine gluconate A. Blade width in mm
B. 0.2% chlorhexidine gluconate B. Blade width in cm
C. 0.12% chlorhexidine gluconate C. Blade length in mm
D. 1% chlorhexidine gluconate D. Blade angle in centigrade
29. The method of choice for removal of 37. The first unit of basic instrument formula
interproximal plaque is: denotes:
A. Unitufted waxed floss A. Blade width in mm
B. Multitufted unwaxed floss B. Blade width in 1/10 mm
C. Multitufted waxed floss C. Blade length in 1/10 mm
D. Unitufted unwaxed floss D. Blade length in mm
30. Sealants are not recommended routinely on: 38. The fourth unit added to the basic three unit
A. Primary molars instrument formula placed at 2nd position
B. Over another restorative material denotes:
C. Interproximal lesions
A. Blade length in mm
D. Carious pit or fissure
B. Blade angle in centigrade
E. Al l of the above
C. Angle formed between cutting edge and central
31. Percentage of pit and fissure caries in children axis of the shaft
is: D. Width of blade in 1/10 mm
A. 60 to 70 % B. 50 to 60 %
39. In general sense, all the hand cutting instruments
C. 80 to 90 % D. 40 to 60 % are:
32. Incidence of dental caries in young children is A. Hatchet
most effectively reduced by: B. Chisels
A. Sealants C. Excavators
B. Oral prophylaxis D. None of the above
C. Flossing
40. The spoon excavator is:
D. None of the above
A. Chisel
33. Dental equipment refers to all of the following B. Modified hatchet
except: C. Modified chisel
A. Dental chair B. X-ray units D. Hatchet
C. Operating unit D. Excavators
41. Frequently used instruments for placing reten-
34. The position or manner of use of an instrument tive grooves for amalgam and composite resins
is described by: are:
A. Class A. Small round burs nos. ¼ to ½
B. Subclass B. Small inverted cone bur
C. Suborder C. Small chisels
D. Order D. Round bur nos. 2 and 4
27 B 28 C 29 C 30 E 31 C 32 A 33 D 34 C 35 B 36 C
37 B 38 C 39 C 40 B 41 A
, 386 Textbook of Operative Dentistry
42. Rotary cutting instruments should be applied for 50. In order to assume a sound enamel margin, the
caries removal and cavity preparation refinement cavosurface angle of occlusal wall of Class 5
in the range of: cavity should be:
A. Ultra high speed A. 110° B. 90°
B. Ultra speed C. 120-130° D. 45°
C. High speed
D. Conventional speed 51. Which of the following statement is true
regarding acid etching except:
43. Dr GV Black, father of operative dentistry had
following qualification: A. It is done with 37% or 50% phosphoric acid
B. It results in increased surface area
A. No professional qualification
B. Only honorary dental qualification C. It provides higher surface energy
C. Only honorary medical qualification D. Etching for an additional period results in
D. Both honorary dental and honorary medical greater penetration of polymers
qualification
52. There is a complete remineralization of the acid-
44. The most reliable sterilization device is: etched enamel after the acid treatment, if exposed
A. Immersion in 100°C water for 30 minutes to saliva within:
B. Soaking in activated 2% alkaline glutaral- A. 30 days
dehyde for 10 minutes B. 45 days
C. Autoclave C. 60 days
D. Steam under pressure for 35 pounds for 15
D. 65 days
minutes
53. Which of the following is/are true regarding
45. Autoclave cycle is achieved with the steam under
enamel?
pressure of:
A. 15 pounds and 121°C for 15 minutes A. It exhibits permeability
B. 35 pounds and 258°F for 5 minutes B. It is about 5 to 20 times more resistant to
C. Both of the above abrasion than dentin
D. 25 pounds and 131°C for 10 minutes C. It’s KHN is 343
D. All of the above
46. Chemiclave is:
A. Steam pressure sterilization 54. The number of dentinal tubules ranges from:
B. Chemical vapor pressure sterilization A. 30,000 to 70,000/mm2
C. Drug heat sterilization B. 20,000 to 60,000/mm2
D. None of the above C. 3500 to 7000/mm2
47. Instruments that cannot withstand autoclaving D. None of the above
may be sterilized effectively with: 55. All of the following statements are true except:
A. 2 % glutaraldehyde A. Class (type) C and Class (type) D deep cavities
B. 1 % sodium hypochlorite does not need liners
C. Ethylene oxide gas B. Calcium hydroxide serves the function of liner
D. 70% ethyl alcohol C. Liners minimize or prevent microleakage
48. Knoop hardness number of enamel is: D. Liners provide thermal protection
A. 241 B. 51 56. Which of the following is contraindicated
C. 68 D. 343 beneath composite resins as liner/ base?
49. KHN of dentin and cementum are respectively: A. Calcium hydroxide
B. Zinc oxide-eugenol
A. 68 and 343 B. 68 and 40
C. Glass ionomer
C. 48 and 64 D. 58 and 30
D. None of the above
42 D 43 D 44 C 45 A 46 B 47 C 48 D 49 B 50 C
51 D 52 B 53 D 54 A 55 A 56 B
