HESI PN Comprehensive Nursing Exam | ACTUAL EXAM |
Complete Questions & Verified Answers | Latest 2025 /
2026 Update | Already Graded A
1. A postoperative client reports sudden shortness of breath and chest pain. Which
action should the PN implement first?
A. Administer the prescribed PRN oxygen at 4 L/min
B. Notify the RN and prepare to obtain arterial blood gases
C. Elevate the head of the bed to 90 degrees
D. Check the client’s oxygen saturation with pulse oximetry
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The PN’s first action is to quickly assess oxygen saturation to determine the
severity of respiratory compromise. Option A is premature without knowing the SpO₂.
Option B is appropriate after initial assessment. Option C helps, but obtaining objective
data first follows the nursing process.
2. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg PO daily. Which finding
best indicates the medication is effective?
A. Daily weight loss of 1 kg
B. Blood pressure drop from 150/90 to 130/80 mmHg
C. Decrease in bilateral ankle edema
D. Urine output 50 mL/hr for 8 hours
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Reduced edema directly reflects decreased fluid overload, the primary goal of
furosemide in heart failure. Weight loss (A) is useful but 1 kg in one day is excessive. BP
change (B) is secondary. Urine output (D) shows diuresis but does not confirm clinical
improvement.
3. The PN is caring for a 6-hour-old newborn. Which assessment finding requires
immediate intervention?
A. Axillary temperature 36.9 °C
B. Respiratory rate 52/min
C. Blood glucose 40 mg/dL
D. Acrocyanosis present
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A blood glucose of 40 mg/dL is below the normal newborn range (45–80)
and requires immediate feeding or IV glucose to prevent neurological injury. The other
findings are normal transitional adaptations.
4. A client with schizophrenia states, “The FBI planted a microphone in my tooth.”
Which response by the PN is best?
A. “That must feel frightening.”
B. “No, the FBI isn’t interested in you.”
C. “Tell me more about the microphone.”
D. “I don’t see any microphone.”
,Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acknowledging the client’s feelings conveys empathy without reinforcing the
delusion. Options B and D argue with the delusion, damaging trust. Option C risks
reinforcing the false belief.
5. A toddler is admitted with suspected intussusception. Which symptom is most
characteristic?
A. Bilious vomiting
B. Currant-jelly stools
C. Projectile vomiting
D. Palpable olive-shaped mass
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Currant-jelly stools (blood-streaked mucus) are the hallmark of
intussusception. Bilious vomiting (A) is nonspecific. Projectile vomiting (C) and
olive-shaped mass (D) suggest pyloric stenosis.
6. The PN receives report on four clients. Which client should the PN assess first?
A. Client with COPD whose oxygen is set at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
B. Post–myocardial infarction client reporting chest pain rated 8/10
C. Client 1 day postoperative cholecystectomy requesting pain medication
D. Client with pneumonia currently receiving IV antibiotics
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: New chest pain in a post-MI client indicates possible reinfarction and is
life-threatening. The other clients are stable or have expected needs.
7. A pregnant client at 28 weeks gestation reports severe headache and blurred
vision. Her BP is 150/100 mmHg. What should the PN do first?
A. Place her in left-lateral position
B. Obtain a urine specimen for protein
C. Notify the RN or provider immediately
D. Start IV fluid hydration
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Signs indicate possible preeclampsia; prompt provider notification is
essential to prevent eclampsia. Left-lateral position (A) and urine protein (B) are
appropriate after notifying. IV fluids (D) are not indicated and may worsen fluid
overload.
8. A client is prescribed 0.25 mg of digoxin PO. The tablets are 0.125 mg each. How
many tablets should the PN administer?
A. 1
B. 1.5
C. 2
D. 2.5
Correct Answer: C
Complete Questions & Verified Answers | Latest 2025 /
2026 Update | Already Graded A
1. A postoperative client reports sudden shortness of breath and chest pain. Which
action should the PN implement first?
A. Administer the prescribed PRN oxygen at 4 L/min
B. Notify the RN and prepare to obtain arterial blood gases
C. Elevate the head of the bed to 90 degrees
D. Check the client’s oxygen saturation with pulse oximetry
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The PN’s first action is to quickly assess oxygen saturation to determine the
severity of respiratory compromise. Option A is premature without knowing the SpO₂.
Option B is appropriate after initial assessment. Option C helps, but obtaining objective
data first follows the nursing process.
2. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg PO daily. Which finding
best indicates the medication is effective?
A. Daily weight loss of 1 kg
B. Blood pressure drop from 150/90 to 130/80 mmHg
C. Decrease in bilateral ankle edema
D. Urine output 50 mL/hr for 8 hours
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Reduced edema directly reflects decreased fluid overload, the primary goal of
furosemide in heart failure. Weight loss (A) is useful but 1 kg in one day is excessive. BP
change (B) is secondary. Urine output (D) shows diuresis but does not confirm clinical
improvement.
3. The PN is caring for a 6-hour-old newborn. Which assessment finding requires
immediate intervention?
A. Axillary temperature 36.9 °C
B. Respiratory rate 52/min
C. Blood glucose 40 mg/dL
D. Acrocyanosis present
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A blood glucose of 40 mg/dL is below the normal newborn range (45–80)
and requires immediate feeding or IV glucose to prevent neurological injury. The other
findings are normal transitional adaptations.
4. A client with schizophrenia states, “The FBI planted a microphone in my tooth.”
Which response by the PN is best?
A. “That must feel frightening.”
B. “No, the FBI isn’t interested in you.”
C. “Tell me more about the microphone.”
D. “I don’t see any microphone.”
,Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acknowledging the client’s feelings conveys empathy without reinforcing the
delusion. Options B and D argue with the delusion, damaging trust. Option C risks
reinforcing the false belief.
5. A toddler is admitted with suspected intussusception. Which symptom is most
characteristic?
A. Bilious vomiting
B. Currant-jelly stools
C. Projectile vomiting
D. Palpable olive-shaped mass
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Currant-jelly stools (blood-streaked mucus) are the hallmark of
intussusception. Bilious vomiting (A) is nonspecific. Projectile vomiting (C) and
olive-shaped mass (D) suggest pyloric stenosis.
6. The PN receives report on four clients. Which client should the PN assess first?
A. Client with COPD whose oxygen is set at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
B. Post–myocardial infarction client reporting chest pain rated 8/10
C. Client 1 day postoperative cholecystectomy requesting pain medication
D. Client with pneumonia currently receiving IV antibiotics
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: New chest pain in a post-MI client indicates possible reinfarction and is
life-threatening. The other clients are stable or have expected needs.
7. A pregnant client at 28 weeks gestation reports severe headache and blurred
vision. Her BP is 150/100 mmHg. What should the PN do first?
A. Place her in left-lateral position
B. Obtain a urine specimen for protein
C. Notify the RN or provider immediately
D. Start IV fluid hydration
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Signs indicate possible preeclampsia; prompt provider notification is
essential to prevent eclampsia. Left-lateral position (A) and urine protein (B) are
appropriate after notifying. IV fluids (D) are not indicated and may worsen fluid
overload.
8. A client is prescribed 0.25 mg of digoxin PO. The tablets are 0.125 mg each. How
many tablets should the PN administer?
A. 1
B. 1.5
C. 2
D. 2.5
Correct Answer: C
