HESI PN EXIT Exam | ACTUAL EXAM | Complete Exit
Exam Questions & Verified Answers | Latest 2025 /
2026 Update | Already Graded A
1. A post-operative client receiving morphine via patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)
is found unresponsive with respirations of 6/min and oxygen saturation 82 %.
What action should the PN take first?
A. Administer naloxone 0.4 mg IV push
B. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 10 L/min
C. Call the Rapid Response Team
D. Discontinue the PCA pump
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client shows classic opioid-induced respiratory depression; the PN’s first
priority is to reverse the opioid with naloxone to restore ventilation. Increasing oxygen
alone (B) does not treat the cause. Calling the team (C) is done after antidote. Stopping
the pump (D) is secondary to reversing the drug.
2. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV push twice daily.
Which finding best indicates the medication is effective?
A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 h
B. Serum potassium 3.2 mEq/L
C. Blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg
D. Urine output 30 mL/h for 2 h
Correct Answer: A
,Rationale: A 1 kg weight loss reflects approximately 1 L fluid loss, showing diuresis.
Hypokalemia (B) is an adverse effect, not efficacy. Hypotension (C) may indicate
over-diuresis. A single low hourly output (D) is insufficient data.
3. The PN is delegating morning hygiene to assistive personnel (AP) for a client
with Clostridioides difficile. Which instruction is most appropriate?
A. Use alcohol-based hand rub before and after care
B. Wear gloves and perform hand-washing with soap and water
C. Apply a surgical mask and eye protection
D. Place the client on airborne precautions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: C. diff spores resist alcohol; soap-and-water hand hygiene plus gloves is
required. Alcohol rub (A) is ineffective. Mask/eye (D) needed only for splash risk.
Airborne (D) incorrect; contact precautions suffice.
4. A 6-year-old with asthma is receiving albuterol nebulizer treatments every 4 h.
Which change in assessment findings warrants immediate intervention?
A. Heart rate increases from 100 to 120 b/min
B. Respiratory rate drops from 30 to 24/min with wheezing
C. Peak flow reading improves from 60 % to 80 % predicted
D. Oxygen saturation rises from 92 % to 96 %
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A decreasing respiratory rate with continued wheezing may signal fatigue and
impending respiratory failure. Mild tachycardia (A) is expected. Improved peak flow (C)
and SpO₂ (D) are desired effects.
, 5. A client 12 h postpartum has a fundus 3 cm above the umbilicus and deviated to
the right. What should the PN do first?
A. Massage the fundus vigorously
B. Assist the client to void
C. Increase IV oxytocin
D. Call the health-care provider
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A high deviated fundus suggests bladder distension; emptying the bladder
usually restores tone. Massage (A) is done after voiding if still boggy. Oxytocin (C) may
be ordered later. Provider (D) contacted if no change after voiding.
6. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receives epoetin alfa. Which
laboratory value best reflects a therapeutic response?
A. Hemoglobin rises from 8 to 10 g/dL over 4 weeks
B. Serum creatinine decreases from 3.0 to 2.5 mg/dL
C. Potassium level remains at 4.5 mEq/L
D. White blood cell count increases from 4 000 to 6 000/mm³
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Epoetin stimulates erythropoiesis; rising Hgb indicates success. Creatinine
(B) measures kidney function, not drug effect. Potassium (C) and WBC (D) are unrelated
outcomes.
7. The PN is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO. The apical pulse is 58
b/min. What action should the PN take?
A. Give the medication and recheck pulse in 1 h
Exam Questions & Verified Answers | Latest 2025 /
2026 Update | Already Graded A
1. A post-operative client receiving morphine via patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)
is found unresponsive with respirations of 6/min and oxygen saturation 82 %.
What action should the PN take first?
A. Administer naloxone 0.4 mg IV push
B. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 10 L/min
C. Call the Rapid Response Team
D. Discontinue the PCA pump
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client shows classic opioid-induced respiratory depression; the PN’s first
priority is to reverse the opioid with naloxone to restore ventilation. Increasing oxygen
alone (B) does not treat the cause. Calling the team (C) is done after antidote. Stopping
the pump (D) is secondary to reversing the drug.
2. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV push twice daily.
Which finding best indicates the medication is effective?
A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 h
B. Serum potassium 3.2 mEq/L
C. Blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg
D. Urine output 30 mL/h for 2 h
Correct Answer: A
,Rationale: A 1 kg weight loss reflects approximately 1 L fluid loss, showing diuresis.
Hypokalemia (B) is an adverse effect, not efficacy. Hypotension (C) may indicate
over-diuresis. A single low hourly output (D) is insufficient data.
3. The PN is delegating morning hygiene to assistive personnel (AP) for a client
with Clostridioides difficile. Which instruction is most appropriate?
A. Use alcohol-based hand rub before and after care
B. Wear gloves and perform hand-washing with soap and water
C. Apply a surgical mask and eye protection
D. Place the client on airborne precautions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: C. diff spores resist alcohol; soap-and-water hand hygiene plus gloves is
required. Alcohol rub (A) is ineffective. Mask/eye (D) needed only for splash risk.
Airborne (D) incorrect; contact precautions suffice.
4. A 6-year-old with asthma is receiving albuterol nebulizer treatments every 4 h.
Which change in assessment findings warrants immediate intervention?
A. Heart rate increases from 100 to 120 b/min
B. Respiratory rate drops from 30 to 24/min with wheezing
C. Peak flow reading improves from 60 % to 80 % predicted
D. Oxygen saturation rises from 92 % to 96 %
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A decreasing respiratory rate with continued wheezing may signal fatigue and
impending respiratory failure. Mild tachycardia (A) is expected. Improved peak flow (C)
and SpO₂ (D) are desired effects.
, 5. A client 12 h postpartum has a fundus 3 cm above the umbilicus and deviated to
the right. What should the PN do first?
A. Massage the fundus vigorously
B. Assist the client to void
C. Increase IV oxytocin
D. Call the health-care provider
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A high deviated fundus suggests bladder distension; emptying the bladder
usually restores tone. Massage (A) is done after voiding if still boggy. Oxytocin (C) may
be ordered later. Provider (D) contacted if no change after voiding.
6. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receives epoetin alfa. Which
laboratory value best reflects a therapeutic response?
A. Hemoglobin rises from 8 to 10 g/dL over 4 weeks
B. Serum creatinine decreases from 3.0 to 2.5 mg/dL
C. Potassium level remains at 4.5 mEq/L
D. White blood cell count increases from 4 000 to 6 000/mm³
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Epoetin stimulates erythropoiesis; rising Hgb indicates success. Creatinine
(B) measures kidney function, not drug effect. Potassium (C) and WBC (D) are unrelated
outcomes.
7. The PN is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO. The apical pulse is 58
b/min. What action should the PN take?
A. Give the medication and recheck pulse in 1 h
