Page 1 of 58
WGU D120 OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT Exam 2026-
2027 COMPLETE 300 QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS LATEST UPDATE THIS YEAR
A 17-year-old female is being seen in the clinic for a wellness visit. The patient tells the
advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) that she is currently sexually active, has a history
of three different partners, does not routinely use condoms, had a normal menstrual cycle
the week before, and denies any complaints.
Which testing should the APRN provide for this patient?
STI test
A 67-year-old woman asks the advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) when her next Pap
smear should be performed. The APRN notes that the client has had three consecutive
negative cytology results.
Which schedule should the APRN recommend for this patient?
Ongoing cervical cytology is not necessary
A 21-year-old female patient presents to the clinic for a routine exam and asks the advanced
practice registered nurse (APRN) about the frequency recommended for a Papanicolaou (Pap)
smear.
Which recommendation should the APRN share with this patient?
,Page 2 of 58
Every three years
A 32-year-old female presents to the clinic as a new patient to establish care and complains
of vague symptoms of abdominal fullness and bloating. On the rectovaginal exam, the
advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) notes a solid, irregular, and fixed pelvic mass.
Which cancer diagnosis should the APRN make for this patient?
Ovarian
A 26-year-old female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of abdominal pain, vaginal
discharge, and vaginal pruritis. The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) performs a
pelvic exam, including pH tape test and wet mount. The APRN notes a vaginal pH of 6.2 and
visualizes ovoid, flagellated organisms under the microscopy.
What should the APRN diagnose?
Trichomoniasis
A 28-year-old woman presents to clinic with complaints of painful vulvar ulcerations. After
further evaluation, the advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) diagnoses the client with
herpes simplex virus.
Which education should the APRN provide to the patient for this condition?
Daily suppressive therapy should be used for 10 or more occurrences per year.
,Page 3 of 58
An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is treating a female patient with bacterial
vaginitis.
Which action should be included in the plan of care?
Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice a day for seven days
The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is performing a bimanual pelvic examination
on a 30-year-old female patient. The APRN will be checking the patient's cervix for cervical
motion tenderness and explains this to the patient.
Which condition is the APRN evaluating in this patient?
Pelvic infection or inflammation
A patient presents to the primary clinic complaining of a foul smelling vaginal discharge that
worsens before menses and after intercourse. The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN)
assesses the patient's diagnostic tests which reveals a vaginal pH >4.5, positive whiff test, and
clue cells on wet prep. A diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis is confirmed.
Which treatment regimen should the APRN use with this patient?
Metronidazole 500 mg PO bid for seven days
A female patient presents to the primary care clinic complaining of lower abdominal pain,
abnormal menses, and difficulty urinating. The advanced practice nurse (APRN) performed a
pelvic examination that revealed cervical motion tenderness (CMT) with purulent discharge.
A diagnosis of gonorrhea is confirmed. The APRN prescribes ceftriaxone 250 mg IM; however,
, Page 4 of 58
the medication is unavailable. Which alternative treatment regimen should the APRN use for
this patient?
Gentamicin 240 mg IM plus azithromycin 2 g orally once
A 15-year-old female presents to the clinic with the complaint of amenorrhea. The advanced
practice registered nurse (APRN) completes an assessment with the following results:
-breast development normal
-recent weight loss of 15 lb with BMI of 16.5 kg/m2
-no drug use
The patient reports being on the track team in high school and runs five miles every day as
part of the sport.
Which care plan should the APRN recommend for this patient?
Review complications, refer to counseling, and refer to nutritionist
An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is seeing a 30-year-old patient who is having
excessive and prolonged menses that last more than seven days. The interval spacing is
typical. The examination and lab work identify no underlying pathology.
Which diagnosis should guide the treatment plan for this patient?
Menorrhagia
A 27-year-old female presents to the clinic. The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is
told about the following symptoms:·
-intense vulvar and vaginal itching
WGU D120 OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT Exam 2026-
2027 COMPLETE 300 QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS LATEST UPDATE THIS YEAR
A 17-year-old female is being seen in the clinic for a wellness visit. The patient tells the
advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) that she is currently sexually active, has a history
of three different partners, does not routinely use condoms, had a normal menstrual cycle
the week before, and denies any complaints.
Which testing should the APRN provide for this patient?
STI test
A 67-year-old woman asks the advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) when her next Pap
smear should be performed. The APRN notes that the client has had three consecutive
negative cytology results.
Which schedule should the APRN recommend for this patient?
Ongoing cervical cytology is not necessary
A 21-year-old female patient presents to the clinic for a routine exam and asks the advanced
practice registered nurse (APRN) about the frequency recommended for a Papanicolaou (Pap)
smear.
Which recommendation should the APRN share with this patient?
,Page 2 of 58
Every three years
A 32-year-old female presents to the clinic as a new patient to establish care and complains
of vague symptoms of abdominal fullness and bloating. On the rectovaginal exam, the
advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) notes a solid, irregular, and fixed pelvic mass.
Which cancer diagnosis should the APRN make for this patient?
Ovarian
A 26-year-old female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of abdominal pain, vaginal
discharge, and vaginal pruritis. The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) performs a
pelvic exam, including pH tape test and wet mount. The APRN notes a vaginal pH of 6.2 and
visualizes ovoid, flagellated organisms under the microscopy.
What should the APRN diagnose?
Trichomoniasis
A 28-year-old woman presents to clinic with complaints of painful vulvar ulcerations. After
further evaluation, the advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) diagnoses the client with
herpes simplex virus.
Which education should the APRN provide to the patient for this condition?
Daily suppressive therapy should be used for 10 or more occurrences per year.
,Page 3 of 58
An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is treating a female patient with bacterial
vaginitis.
Which action should be included in the plan of care?
Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice a day for seven days
The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is performing a bimanual pelvic examination
on a 30-year-old female patient. The APRN will be checking the patient's cervix for cervical
motion tenderness and explains this to the patient.
Which condition is the APRN evaluating in this patient?
Pelvic infection or inflammation
A patient presents to the primary clinic complaining of a foul smelling vaginal discharge that
worsens before menses and after intercourse. The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN)
assesses the patient's diagnostic tests which reveals a vaginal pH >4.5, positive whiff test, and
clue cells on wet prep. A diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis is confirmed.
Which treatment regimen should the APRN use with this patient?
Metronidazole 500 mg PO bid for seven days
A female patient presents to the primary care clinic complaining of lower abdominal pain,
abnormal menses, and difficulty urinating. The advanced practice nurse (APRN) performed a
pelvic examination that revealed cervical motion tenderness (CMT) with purulent discharge.
A diagnosis of gonorrhea is confirmed. The APRN prescribes ceftriaxone 250 mg IM; however,
, Page 4 of 58
the medication is unavailable. Which alternative treatment regimen should the APRN use for
this patient?
Gentamicin 240 mg IM plus azithromycin 2 g orally once
A 15-year-old female presents to the clinic with the complaint of amenorrhea. The advanced
practice registered nurse (APRN) completes an assessment with the following results:
-breast development normal
-recent weight loss of 15 lb with BMI of 16.5 kg/m2
-no drug use
The patient reports being on the track team in high school and runs five miles every day as
part of the sport.
Which care plan should the APRN recommend for this patient?
Review complications, refer to counseling, and refer to nutritionist
An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is seeing a 30-year-old patient who is having
excessive and prolonged menses that last more than seven days. The interval spacing is
typical. The examination and lab work identify no underlying pathology.
Which diagnosis should guide the treatment plan for this patient?
Menorrhagia
A 27-year-old female presents to the clinic. The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is
told about the following symptoms:·
-intense vulvar and vaginal itching
