CERTIFIED INFORMATION SECURITY
MANAGER (CISM) QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A
| INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. Which activity is the primary responsibility of information security
governance?
A. Implementing firewalls
B. Managing daily security operations
C. Ensuring information security strategy aligns with business objectives
D. Performing vulnerability scans
Rationale: Governance focuses on strategic alignment, value delivery, and
oversight rather than technical execution.
2. What is the MOST important factor when establishing an information
security program?
A. Available security tools
B. Regulatory requirements
C. Business objectives and risk appetite
D. Industry benchmarks
Rationale: Security programs must be driven by business goals and
acceptable risk levels.
3. Who is ultimately accountable for information security governance?
A. Information security manager
B. IT operations manager
C. Board of directors and executive management
, D. Internal audit
Rationale: Senior leadership holds accountability for governance and risk
oversight.
4. What is the PRIMARY purpose of an information security policy?
A. Define technical standards
B. Provide management direction and support for security
C. List security controls
D. Train employees
Rationale: Policies set high-level management intent and direction.
5. Which metric BEST demonstrates the effectiveness of a security governance
program?
A. Number of incidents
B. Cost of controls
C. Risk reduction aligned with business impact
D. Number of audits passed
Rationale: Effectiveness is measured by reduced risk to the business.
6. What is the FIRST step in developing an information security strategy?
A. Select security controls
B. Conduct training
C. Understand business objectives
D. Perform penetration testing
Rationale: Strategy must be based on business goals before controls are
chosen.
7. Which document defines acceptable risk levels?
A. Incident response plan
B. Security standards
C. Risk appetite statement
D. Business continuity plan
Rationale: Risk appetite formally defines acceptable levels of risk.
, 8. What is the PRIMARY benefit of aligning security strategy with enterprise
architecture?
A. Reduced costs
B. Faster deployment
C. Consistent and integrated controls
D. Simplified audits
Rationale: Alignment ensures security is built consistently across systems.
9. Who should approve the information security strategy?
A. Information security manager
B. IT manager
C. Executive management
D. Compliance officer
Rationale: Strategy approval requires executive authority.
10.What is the BEST approach to ensure continuous improvement of security
governance?
A. Annual audits
B. Regular performance measurement and reporting
C. More security tools
D. Outsourcing security
Rationale: Continuous monitoring and reporting drive improvement.
11.What is the PRIMARY objective of information risk management?
A. Eliminate all risks
B. Transfer all risks
C. Manage risk to acceptable levels
D. Avoid risk entirely
Rationale: Risk management balances risk within acceptable limits.
12.Which risk treatment option reduces likelihood or impact?
A. Avoid
B. Transfer
MANAGER (CISM) QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A
| INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. Which activity is the primary responsibility of information security
governance?
A. Implementing firewalls
B. Managing daily security operations
C. Ensuring information security strategy aligns with business objectives
D. Performing vulnerability scans
Rationale: Governance focuses on strategic alignment, value delivery, and
oversight rather than technical execution.
2. What is the MOST important factor when establishing an information
security program?
A. Available security tools
B. Regulatory requirements
C. Business objectives and risk appetite
D. Industry benchmarks
Rationale: Security programs must be driven by business goals and
acceptable risk levels.
3. Who is ultimately accountable for information security governance?
A. Information security manager
B. IT operations manager
C. Board of directors and executive management
, D. Internal audit
Rationale: Senior leadership holds accountability for governance and risk
oversight.
4. What is the PRIMARY purpose of an information security policy?
A. Define technical standards
B. Provide management direction and support for security
C. List security controls
D. Train employees
Rationale: Policies set high-level management intent and direction.
5. Which metric BEST demonstrates the effectiveness of a security governance
program?
A. Number of incidents
B. Cost of controls
C. Risk reduction aligned with business impact
D. Number of audits passed
Rationale: Effectiveness is measured by reduced risk to the business.
6. What is the FIRST step in developing an information security strategy?
A. Select security controls
B. Conduct training
C. Understand business objectives
D. Perform penetration testing
Rationale: Strategy must be based on business goals before controls are
chosen.
7. Which document defines acceptable risk levels?
A. Incident response plan
B. Security standards
C. Risk appetite statement
D. Business continuity plan
Rationale: Risk appetite formally defines acceptable levels of risk.
, 8. What is the PRIMARY benefit of aligning security strategy with enterprise
architecture?
A. Reduced costs
B. Faster deployment
C. Consistent and integrated controls
D. Simplified audits
Rationale: Alignment ensures security is built consistently across systems.
9. Who should approve the information security strategy?
A. Information security manager
B. IT manager
C. Executive management
D. Compliance officer
Rationale: Strategy approval requires executive authority.
10.What is the BEST approach to ensure continuous improvement of security
governance?
A. Annual audits
B. Regular performance measurement and reporting
C. More security tools
D. Outsourcing security
Rationale: Continuous monitoring and reporting drive improvement.
11.What is the PRIMARY objective of information risk management?
A. Eliminate all risks
B. Transfer all risks
C. Manage risk to acceptable levels
D. Avoid risk entirely
Rationale: Risk management balances risk within acceptable limits.
12.Which risk treatment option reduces likelihood or impact?
A. Avoid
B. Transfer
