AMEDD DCC Exam 2025-2026 OPSEC, FPCON, ACFT, Army Values,
UCMJ, LOAC, TLP, Promotions, Risk Management Questions and 100%
Correct Answers with Detailed RATIONALES.
1. According to ADP 6-22, what is the definition of leadership in the Army?
A) Managing resources and personnel to complete a task.
B) Influencing by providing purpose, direction, and motivation to accomplish a
mission.
C) Enforcing discipline and adherence to Army regulations.
D) Delegating tasks to subordinates to achieve efficiency.
Correct Answer: B
2. What form is used for Developmental Counseling?
A) DA 4856
B) AAA-117
C) AAA-294
D) DA 67-10-1
Correct Answer: A
3. The statement "I will never leave a fallen comrade" is part of which creed?
A) The NCO Creed
B) The Soldier's Creed
C) The Officer's Oath of Office
D) The Ranger Creed
Correct Answer: B
4. According to DoDD 5205.02, what is the primary goal when a potential OPSEC
vulnerability is identified?
A) To immediately report it to the public affairs office.
B) To stop information gathering by adversaries by applying appropriate
countermeasures.
C) To increase the classification level of all related documents.
D) To conduct a full criminal investigation.
Correct Answer: B
5. Which FPCON applies when intelligence is received indicating a specific,
imminent terrorist attack against a person or location?
A) FPCON Bravo
B) FPCON Charlie
C) FPCON Delta
,D) FPCON Normal
Correct Answer: C
6. During a deployment to an OCONUS location with a persistent terrorist threat,
the base commander receives credible intelligence that a vehicle-borne IED attack
against the main gate is being planned, but the timing is unknown. The commander
should most likely elevate the Force Protection Condition (FPCON) to what level,
and which threat level category would this intelligence best represent?
A) FPCON Bravo; Significant Threat
B) FPCON Charlie; High Threat
C) FPCON Delta; Moderate Threat
D) FPCON Alpha; High Threat
Correct Answer: B (The intelligence indicates a terrorist action is likely, which is
FPCON Charlie. A credible, specific plot indicates a high threat level, not just
Significant.)
7. A Sergeant First Class (SFC) receives a "Most Qualified (MQ)" rating on their
NCOER. They are later recommended for a permanent administrative reprimand
under AR 600-37 for an unrelated incident. Which of the following statements is
MOST accurate regarding the interaction of these two events?
A) The MQ rating guarantees promotion and nullifies the reprimand.
B) The reprimand must be filed locally and cannot affect the promotion file that
contains the MQ.
C) The MQ rating is a strong positive, but a permanent reprimand filed in their
official military personnel file could still negatively impact centralized promotion
board results.
D) Since the SFC is in the centralized promotion zone, neither the MQ nor the
reprimand are relevant to the board.
Correct Answer: C (Both documents become part of the Soldier's official record.
Promotion boards review the entire record, so a strong NCOER and a negative
reprimand would be weighed against each other.)
8. What are the five steps of the OPSEC process?
A) Plan, Prepare, Execute, Assess, supervise
B) Identify critical information, identify threats, analyze vulnerabilities, assess risk,
apply countermeasures
C) Search, Silence, Segregate, Safeguard, Speed to rear
D) Receive mission, Issue WARNO, make tentative plan, Complete plan,
Supervise
Correct Answer: B
, 9. While conducting a routine health and welfare inspection of a barracks bay, a
Platoon Sergeant discovers a Soldier's personal footlocker is unlocked. Upon
opening it, he finds stolen military equipment. At a subsequent Article 15 hearing,
the Soldier's defense counsel argues the evidence is inadmissible. The
Commander's BEST argument for admitting the evidence is that:
A) The Platoon Sergeant had probable cause based on a tip from another Soldier.
B) The discovery was made during a lawful inspection, not a search.
C) The Soldier had no reasonable expectation of privacy in the barracks.
D) The Commander authorized a seizure after the fact.
Correct Answer: B (This directly applies the rule from the guide: "Can an
inspection be a search? NO!" A routine inspection is lawful; contraband found in
plain view during such an inspection is admissible.)
10. You are the OIC of a detail tasked to secure and process detainees. You brief
your team using the "5 S's and T." One Soldier asks, "Why do we Segregate them
first?" Your most accurate response, based on LOAC principles, is to:
A) Speed up the tagging process for medical triage.
B) Prevent them from collaborating on a story and safeguard potential intelligence
sources.
C) Comply with the requirement to search all detainees individually.
D) Immediately silence any potential leaders.
Correct Answer: B (Segregation is a tactical and intelligence security measure. It
prevents coordination among detainees, which protects the integrity of any
information they possess.)
11. A new Company Commander, in their first 30 days (Initial Assessment phase),
is reviewing their unit's risk management worksheets for a major upcoming live-
fire exercise. They notice that for the hazard "vehicle rollover on rough terrain,"
the only control listed is "drive carefully." According to the five steps of risk
management and the requirements for controls, what is the commander's BEST
course of action?
A) Accept the risk as is, because the drivers are experienced.
B) Implement the control and supervise during the exercise.
C) Reject the worksheet and demand new controls that are more specific, feasible,
and measurable (e.g., mandatory route reconnaissance, enforced speed limits,
driver training).
D) Elevate the risk decision to the Battalion Commander.
Correct Answer: C ("Drive carefully" is vague and not an effective control. The
commander must ensure controls are suitable and feasible. This falls under Step 3:
Develop controls and make risk decisions.)
UCMJ, LOAC, TLP, Promotions, Risk Management Questions and 100%
Correct Answers with Detailed RATIONALES.
1. According to ADP 6-22, what is the definition of leadership in the Army?
A) Managing resources and personnel to complete a task.
B) Influencing by providing purpose, direction, and motivation to accomplish a
mission.
C) Enforcing discipline and adherence to Army regulations.
D) Delegating tasks to subordinates to achieve efficiency.
Correct Answer: B
2. What form is used for Developmental Counseling?
A) DA 4856
B) AAA-117
C) AAA-294
D) DA 67-10-1
Correct Answer: A
3. The statement "I will never leave a fallen comrade" is part of which creed?
A) The NCO Creed
B) The Soldier's Creed
C) The Officer's Oath of Office
D) The Ranger Creed
Correct Answer: B
4. According to DoDD 5205.02, what is the primary goal when a potential OPSEC
vulnerability is identified?
A) To immediately report it to the public affairs office.
B) To stop information gathering by adversaries by applying appropriate
countermeasures.
C) To increase the classification level of all related documents.
D) To conduct a full criminal investigation.
Correct Answer: B
5. Which FPCON applies when intelligence is received indicating a specific,
imminent terrorist attack against a person or location?
A) FPCON Bravo
B) FPCON Charlie
C) FPCON Delta
,D) FPCON Normal
Correct Answer: C
6. During a deployment to an OCONUS location with a persistent terrorist threat,
the base commander receives credible intelligence that a vehicle-borne IED attack
against the main gate is being planned, but the timing is unknown. The commander
should most likely elevate the Force Protection Condition (FPCON) to what level,
and which threat level category would this intelligence best represent?
A) FPCON Bravo; Significant Threat
B) FPCON Charlie; High Threat
C) FPCON Delta; Moderate Threat
D) FPCON Alpha; High Threat
Correct Answer: B (The intelligence indicates a terrorist action is likely, which is
FPCON Charlie. A credible, specific plot indicates a high threat level, not just
Significant.)
7. A Sergeant First Class (SFC) receives a "Most Qualified (MQ)" rating on their
NCOER. They are later recommended for a permanent administrative reprimand
under AR 600-37 for an unrelated incident. Which of the following statements is
MOST accurate regarding the interaction of these two events?
A) The MQ rating guarantees promotion and nullifies the reprimand.
B) The reprimand must be filed locally and cannot affect the promotion file that
contains the MQ.
C) The MQ rating is a strong positive, but a permanent reprimand filed in their
official military personnel file could still negatively impact centralized promotion
board results.
D) Since the SFC is in the centralized promotion zone, neither the MQ nor the
reprimand are relevant to the board.
Correct Answer: C (Both documents become part of the Soldier's official record.
Promotion boards review the entire record, so a strong NCOER and a negative
reprimand would be weighed against each other.)
8. What are the five steps of the OPSEC process?
A) Plan, Prepare, Execute, Assess, supervise
B) Identify critical information, identify threats, analyze vulnerabilities, assess risk,
apply countermeasures
C) Search, Silence, Segregate, Safeguard, Speed to rear
D) Receive mission, Issue WARNO, make tentative plan, Complete plan,
Supervise
Correct Answer: B
, 9. While conducting a routine health and welfare inspection of a barracks bay, a
Platoon Sergeant discovers a Soldier's personal footlocker is unlocked. Upon
opening it, he finds stolen military equipment. At a subsequent Article 15 hearing,
the Soldier's defense counsel argues the evidence is inadmissible. The
Commander's BEST argument for admitting the evidence is that:
A) The Platoon Sergeant had probable cause based on a tip from another Soldier.
B) The discovery was made during a lawful inspection, not a search.
C) The Soldier had no reasonable expectation of privacy in the barracks.
D) The Commander authorized a seizure after the fact.
Correct Answer: B (This directly applies the rule from the guide: "Can an
inspection be a search? NO!" A routine inspection is lawful; contraband found in
plain view during such an inspection is admissible.)
10. You are the OIC of a detail tasked to secure and process detainees. You brief
your team using the "5 S's and T." One Soldier asks, "Why do we Segregate them
first?" Your most accurate response, based on LOAC principles, is to:
A) Speed up the tagging process for medical triage.
B) Prevent them from collaborating on a story and safeguard potential intelligence
sources.
C) Comply with the requirement to search all detainees individually.
D) Immediately silence any potential leaders.
Correct Answer: B (Segregation is a tactical and intelligence security measure. It
prevents coordination among detainees, which protects the integrity of any
information they possess.)
11. A new Company Commander, in their first 30 days (Initial Assessment phase),
is reviewing their unit's risk management worksheets for a major upcoming live-
fire exercise. They notice that for the hazard "vehicle rollover on rough terrain,"
the only control listed is "drive carefully." According to the five steps of risk
management and the requirements for controls, what is the commander's BEST
course of action?
A) Accept the risk as is, because the drivers are experienced.
B) Implement the control and supervise during the exercise.
C) Reject the worksheet and demand new controls that are more specific, feasible,
and measurable (e.g., mandatory route reconnaissance, enforced speed limits,
driver training).
D) Elevate the risk decision to the Battalion Commander.
Correct Answer: C ("Drive carefully" is vague and not an effective control. The
commander must ensure controls are suitable and feasible. This falls under Step 3:
Develop controls and make risk decisions.)
