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FNP III EXAM 1 NEWEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM TEST
BANK| FAMILY NURSE PRACTITIONER 3 EXAM 1
WITH COMPLETE 400 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST RECENT!!)
• Upper GI, Lower GI, Gastrointestinal Disorders and
Pharmacology, Cardiovascular Disorders,
A 55-year-old man presents to your family practice clinic with acute
onset of severe pain, swelling, and warmth in his right knee for the past
12 hours. He reports fever and chills. On examination, the knee is
erythematous, tender, and has limited range of motion. He has a history
of type 2 diabetes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Osteoarthritis flare
B) Gout
C) Septic arthritis
D) Rheumatoid arthritis - Correct Answer -C) Septic arthritis
Acute joint pain with fever, swelling, erythema, and limited motion in a
single joint is classic for septic arthritis. Risk factors include diabetes.
A 62-year-old man comes to your family clinic with severe pain and
swelling in his right knee that started last night. He reports difficulty
walking and low-grade fever. He has type 2 diabetes and recently had a
urinary tract infection treated with antibiotics. On exam, the knee is
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warm, erythematous, and extremely tender with limited range of motion.
Laboratory studies show WBC 14,000/mm³ and ESR 65 mm/hr. Which
of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Gout flare
B) Septic arthritis
C) Rheumatoid arthritis flare
D) Osteoarthritis exacerbation - Correct Answer -B) Septic arthritis
Red flags for septic arthritis: acute onset, single large joint, systemic
symptoms (fever), risk factor (diabetes, recent infection), elevated
WBC/ESR.
A 68-year-old woman presents to your clinic with gradual onset of knee
pain over the past several months. She describes stiffness in the
mornings that lasts about 15-20 minutes and worsens with activity,
especially climbing stairs. She denies fever, chills, or recent trauma. On
exam, there is mild bony enlargement of the knees, tenderness along the
joint line, and crepitus with movement, but no warmth or erythema.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Septic arthritis
B) Gout
C) Osteoarthritis
D) Rheumatoid arthritis - Correct Answer -C) Osteoarthritis
Gradual, activity-related joint pain, morning stiffness <30 minutes, bony
changes, and absence of systemic symptoms are classic for osteoarthritis
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A 58-year-old woman with end-stage renal disease on hemodialysis
presents with painful, violaceous plaques on her lower legs that have
developed over the past week. Some areas show black eschars. She
reports severe tenderness at the sites. She denies fevers, but labs show
elevated calcium-phosphate product. On exam, there is no pitting edema,
and pulses are palpable. Which of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Stasis dermatitis
B) Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
C) Cellulitis
D) Calciphylaxis - Correct Answer -D) Calciphylaxis
Calciphylaxis occurs in patients with ESRD and is characterized by
painful, violaceous plaques that can ulcerate or form black eschars, often
with elevated calcium-phosphate product. Unlike stasis dermatitis, there
is no chronic edema or scaling; unlike DVT, pulses are present and the
lesions are cutaneous, not just swollen limb; unlike cellulitis, there may
be lack of systemic infection signs (fever, leukocytosis) and lesions are
ischemic/necrotic rather than uniformly erythematous.
A 46-year-old man presents to your clinic with redness, swelling, and
warmth of his left lower leg that developed over the past 2 days. He
reports mild pain and a low-grade fever of 100.4°F. He has a history of
type 2 diabetes. On exam, the affected area is diffusely erythematous,
tender, and slightly edematous, with no ulceration or necrosis. Pulses are
palpable. There is no history of chronic venous insufficiency.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Calciphylaxis
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B) Stasis dermatitis
C) Cellulitis
D) Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) - Correct Answer -C) Cellulitis
Cellulitis typically presents as acute, unilateral erythema, warmth,
swelling, and tenderness, often with systemic symptoms like fever,
especially in patients with risk factors such as diabetes. Unlike
calciphylaxis, there is no necrotic eschar; unlike stasis dermatitis, it is
acute, not chronic or bilateral; unlike DVT, the skin is red and tender,
not just swollen.
A 65-year-old woman presents to your clinic with chronic itching and
discoloration of her lower legs, which has been slowly worsening over
the past several months. She notices some mild swelling around her
ankles at the end of the day. On exam, there is bilateral, hyperpigmented,
scaly patches with mild edema around the ankles. There are no areas of
necrosis, ulceration, or acute warmth. She denies fever or acute pain.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Cellulitis
B) Calciphylaxis
C) Stasis dermatitis
D) Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) - Correct Answer -C) Stasis dermatitis
Stasis dermatitis presents as chronic, bilateral lower leg changes with
hyperpigmentation, scaling, and mild edema, usually in patients with
chronic venous insufficiency. Unlike cellulitis, it is not acute and not
associated with systemic symptoms; unlike calciphylaxis, there is no
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FNP III EXAM 1 NEWEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM TEST
BANK| FAMILY NURSE PRACTITIONER 3 EXAM 1
WITH COMPLETE 400 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST RECENT!!)
• Upper GI, Lower GI, Gastrointestinal Disorders and
Pharmacology, Cardiovascular Disorders,
A 55-year-old man presents to your family practice clinic with acute
onset of severe pain, swelling, and warmth in his right knee for the past
12 hours. He reports fever and chills. On examination, the knee is
erythematous, tender, and has limited range of motion. He has a history
of type 2 diabetes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Osteoarthritis flare
B) Gout
C) Septic arthritis
D) Rheumatoid arthritis - Correct Answer -C) Septic arthritis
Acute joint pain with fever, swelling, erythema, and limited motion in a
single joint is classic for septic arthritis. Risk factors include diabetes.
A 62-year-old man comes to your family clinic with severe pain and
swelling in his right knee that started last night. He reports difficulty
walking and low-grade fever. He has type 2 diabetes and recently had a
urinary tract infection treated with antibiotics. On exam, the knee is
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warm, erythematous, and extremely tender with limited range of motion.
Laboratory studies show WBC 14,000/mm³ and ESR 65 mm/hr. Which
of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Gout flare
B) Septic arthritis
C) Rheumatoid arthritis flare
D) Osteoarthritis exacerbation - Correct Answer -B) Septic arthritis
Red flags for septic arthritis: acute onset, single large joint, systemic
symptoms (fever), risk factor (diabetes, recent infection), elevated
WBC/ESR.
A 68-year-old woman presents to your clinic with gradual onset of knee
pain over the past several months. She describes stiffness in the
mornings that lasts about 15-20 minutes and worsens with activity,
especially climbing stairs. She denies fever, chills, or recent trauma. On
exam, there is mild bony enlargement of the knees, tenderness along the
joint line, and crepitus with movement, but no warmth or erythema.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Septic arthritis
B) Gout
C) Osteoarthritis
D) Rheumatoid arthritis - Correct Answer -C) Osteoarthritis
Gradual, activity-related joint pain, morning stiffness <30 minutes, bony
changes, and absence of systemic symptoms are classic for osteoarthritis
pg. 2
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A 58-year-old woman with end-stage renal disease on hemodialysis
presents with painful, violaceous plaques on her lower legs that have
developed over the past week. Some areas show black eschars. She
reports severe tenderness at the sites. She denies fevers, but labs show
elevated calcium-phosphate product. On exam, there is no pitting edema,
and pulses are palpable. Which of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Stasis dermatitis
B) Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
C) Cellulitis
D) Calciphylaxis - Correct Answer -D) Calciphylaxis
Calciphylaxis occurs in patients with ESRD and is characterized by
painful, violaceous plaques that can ulcerate or form black eschars, often
with elevated calcium-phosphate product. Unlike stasis dermatitis, there
is no chronic edema or scaling; unlike DVT, pulses are present and the
lesions are cutaneous, not just swollen limb; unlike cellulitis, there may
be lack of systemic infection signs (fever, leukocytosis) and lesions are
ischemic/necrotic rather than uniformly erythematous.
A 46-year-old man presents to your clinic with redness, swelling, and
warmth of his left lower leg that developed over the past 2 days. He
reports mild pain and a low-grade fever of 100.4°F. He has a history of
type 2 diabetes. On exam, the affected area is diffusely erythematous,
tender, and slightly edematous, with no ulceration or necrosis. Pulses are
palpable. There is no history of chronic venous insufficiency.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Calciphylaxis
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B) Stasis dermatitis
C) Cellulitis
D) Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) - Correct Answer -C) Cellulitis
Cellulitis typically presents as acute, unilateral erythema, warmth,
swelling, and tenderness, often with systemic symptoms like fever,
especially in patients with risk factors such as diabetes. Unlike
calciphylaxis, there is no necrotic eschar; unlike stasis dermatitis, it is
acute, not chronic or bilateral; unlike DVT, the skin is red and tender,
not just swollen.
A 65-year-old woman presents to your clinic with chronic itching and
discoloration of her lower legs, which has been slowly worsening over
the past several months. She notices some mild swelling around her
ankles at the end of the day. On exam, there is bilateral, hyperpigmented,
scaly patches with mild edema around the ankles. There are no areas of
necrosis, ulceration, or acute warmth. She denies fever or acute pain.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Cellulitis
B) Calciphylaxis
C) Stasis dermatitis
D) Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) - Correct Answer -C) Stasis dermatitis
Stasis dermatitis presents as chronic, bilateral lower leg changes with
hyperpigmentation, scaling, and mild edema, usually in patients with
chronic venous insufficiency. Unlike cellulitis, it is not acute and not
associated with systemic symptoms; unlike calciphylaxis, there is no
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